ATI RN
FNP Pediatric Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
Biopsy is not usually performed for a child with suspicion of Wilms tumor EXCEPT
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In the context of pediatric oncology, the correct answer is D) intratumoral calcification radiologically. Wilms tumor is a common pediatric renal malignancy, and the presence of intratumoral calcifications on radiological imaging is actually a characteristic feature of Wilms tumor. This finding, along with other clinical and imaging features, can help in the diagnosis of Wilms tumor without the need for biopsy, making option D the correct choice. Option A) age of 2-3 years is incorrect because Wilms tumor commonly presents in children between the ages of 2 and 5 years, so age alone would not preclude the need for further investigation. Option B) signs of inflammation or infection is incorrect because these symptoms may actually be present in some children with Wilms tumor, and biopsy may still be necessary to confirm the diagnosis in such cases. Option C) significant lymph node enlargement radiologically is incorrect because lymph node involvement can be seen in Wilms tumor and does not rule out the need for biopsy to confirm the diagnosis. In an educational context, understanding the typical clinical and radiological features of Wilms tumor is crucial for healthcare providers caring for pediatric patients. This question highlights the importance of recognizing specific findings associated with Wilms tumor that may obviate the need for biopsy and emphasizes the importance of a comprehensive approach to diagnostic decision-making in pediatric oncology.
Question 2 of 5
The major pharmacologic action of albuterol sulfate (Proventil HFA) is:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Albuterol sulfate (Proventil HFA) is a beta2-adrenergic agonist bronchodilator used for treating bronchospasm in conditions like asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The major pharmacologic action of albuterol sulfate is to relax constricted bronchial smooth muscle, leading to bronchodilation and improved airflow. This action helps to relieve symptoms such as wheezing, coughing, and shortness of breath by opening up the airways. Option A, decreasing airway reactivity, is incorrect because albuterol does not target reactivity but rather smooth muscle constriction. Option B, decreasing inflammation and airway obstruction, is incorrect as albuterol's primary effect is on smooth muscle relaxation rather than inflammation. Option C, improving the action of cilia to sweep trapped mucus upward, is incorrect as albuterol does not directly affect ciliary function. In an educational context, understanding the pharmacologic actions of medications like albuterol is crucial for nurse practitioners working in pediatric settings. Being able to differentiate between various drug actions helps in making informed clinical decisions and providing optimal care to pediatric patients with respiratory conditions. It is essential for FNPs to have a solid foundation in pharmacology to ensure safe and effective management of pediatric patients with respiratory issues.
Question 3 of 5
A 15-month-old toddler was able to do all the following EXCEPT
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is option D) responds to his/her name. At 15 months old, a child typically should be able to respond to their name when called. This is an important developmental milestone that indicates social awareness and language comprehension, which are crucial for a child's overall development and communication skills. Option A) walks alone is a typical milestone for a 15-month-old child and indicates gross motor skills development. Option B) makes tower of 3 cubes demonstrates fine motor skills development, which is also expected around this age. Option C) inserts raisin in a bottle is a fine motor skills activity that may be challenging for a 15-month-old but is still within the realm of expected development. Educationally, understanding developmental milestones in children is essential for healthcare providers, especially for those working in pediatric settings like Family Nurse Practitioners (FNPs). Recognizing when a child is not meeting certain milestones can indicate potential developmental delays or issues that may require further evaluation or intervention. It is crucial for healthcare providers to be knowledgeable about age-appropriate expectations to provide the best care and support for children and their families.
Question 4 of 5
The MOST common cause of obstructive sleep apnea in children is
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In pediatric practice, understanding the etiology of obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) is crucial for accurate diagnosis and management. The most common cause of OSA in children is adenotonsillar hypertrophy, making option C the correct answer. Adenoids and tonsils are prominent lymphoid tissues in children that can become enlarged, leading to airway obstruction during sleep and resulting in OSA. Option A, obesity, is a risk factor for OSA in both children and adults; however, adenotonsillar hypertrophy is the primary cause in pediatric patients. Allergies (option B) can contribute to nasal congestion and inflammation, but they are not the primary cause of OSA in children. Pharyngeal reactive edema due to gastroesophageal reflux (option D) can cause upper airway inflammation, but it is not as common a cause of OSA in children as adenotonsillar hypertrophy. Educationally, it is important for nurse practitioners specializing in pediatrics to be able to differentiate between the various causes of OSA in children to provide appropriate care. Understanding the prevalence and implications of adenotonsillar hypertrophy in pediatric patients is essential for timely referral to otolaryngology and effective management of OSA to improve quality of life and prevent complications such as growth delay and cognitive impairment.
Question 5 of 5
Because of the significant association of lead intoxication with poverty, the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) recommends blood lead screening at
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B) 12 and 24 months for blood lead screening according to the CDC recommendations. The rationale behind this timing is based on the fact that lead exposure is most common in children living in poverty due to factors such as older housing with lead-based paint. By screening at 12 and 24 months, healthcare providers can catch lead exposure early and intervene to prevent long-term detrimental effects on the child's development. Option A) 6 and 12 months is too early for routine lead screening as lead exposure is more likely to occur as the child grows older and becomes more mobile, increasing their chances of ingesting lead-containing substances. Option C) 24 and 36 months and Option D) 36 and 48 months are too infrequent for lead screening as the effects of lead exposure can be rapid and irreversible. Waiting until 24 months for the first screening may miss early exposure cases that could have been detected earlier at 12 months. In an educational context, understanding the rationale behind the timing of lead screening is crucial for nurse practitioners working with pediatric populations. It emphasizes the importance of preventive care and early intervention in protecting children from the harmful effects of lead exposure, especially in at-risk populations. By following evidence-based guidelines like those provided by the CDC, healthcare providers can ensure the best outcomes for their young patients.