ATI RN
microbiology chapter 11 test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Binary fission is a form of reproduction used by
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Binary fission is a form of asexual reproduction where a single organism divides into two equal parts. Bacteria reproduce through binary fission, splitting into two identical daughter cells. Viruses are not considered living organisms and reproduce by infecting host cells. Fungi reproduce through spores or sexual reproduction. Helminths are parasitic worms that reproduce sexually. Therefore, the correct answer is B, bacteria, as they specifically utilize binary fission for reproduction.
Question 2 of 9
A 42-year-old female has foamy purulent vaginal discharges. The smear stained by Romanovsky- Giemsa's method has been found to include flagellated bacteria. What is the most likely microorganism that has been found by the doctor?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Trichomonas vaginalis. Trichomonas vaginalis is a flagellated protozoan parasite commonly found in vaginal infections. The presence of flagellated bacteria in the vaginal discharge stained with Romanovsky-Giemsa method indicates a protozoan infection, ruling out bacterial or viral causes. Choices B, C, and D are not correct as Leishmania donovani causes leishmaniasis, Trypanosoma gambiense causes African sleeping sickness, and Trihomonas hominis is a non-pathogenic flagellate found in the human intestine, not typically associated with vaginal infections.
Question 3 of 9
A veterenary attendant working at a cattle farm complains of joint pain, fever, indisposition and sweating at nighttime that he has been experiencing for a month. Giving the regard to such presentations and occupational history the doctor suspected brucellosis. What material taken from this patient is to be analyzed in a common microbiological laboratory?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Blood serum. In suspected cases of brucellosis, blood serum is typically analyzed in a common microbiological laboratory. This is because the bacteria causing brucellosis, Brucella species, can be detected through serological tests in the blood serum. The presence of specific antibodies against Brucella in the serum confirms the diagnosis. Spinal fluid (choice B) would be analyzed in cases of suspected central nervous system infections, which are not typical for brucellosis. Vomit mass (choice C) is not a common sample for microbiological analysis in cases of brucellosis. Urine (choice D) is not the preferred sample for detecting Brucella antibodies; blood serum is the primary choice for serological testing.
Question 4 of 9
During examination of a 3-month old infant a pediatrician revealed that the baby's oral mucosa and tongue were covered with a thick white deposit. In the material taken from the affected site a bacteriologist revealed the presence of yeast fungi giving the reasons for suspecting a fungal infection which occurs most often in children of this age, namely:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Candidiasis. In infants, a thick white deposit on the oral mucosa and tongue is indicative of oral thrush, which is caused by the yeast fungus Candida. Infants are particularly susceptible to Candidiasis due to their developing immune systems and use of antibiotics. Favus (B) is a chronic fungal infection of the scalp caused by Trichophyton schoenleinii, typically not seen in infants. Epidermophytosis (C) refers to superficial fungal infections of the skin caused by dermatophytes, not commonly found in the oral cavity of infants. Actinomycosis (D) is a bacterial infection caused by Actinomyces species, not a fungal infection.
Question 5 of 9
The tool of choice to observe living microorganisms is the
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: phase-contrast microscope. This type of microscope is ideal for observing living microorganisms because it enhances the contrast of transparent specimens without the need for staining or fixing, allowing for clear visualization of internal structures and movements. Bright-field microscopes (A) are suitable for observing fixed and stained specimens, not living organisms. Fluorescence microscopes (C) are used to detect specific cellular components tagged with fluorescent markers, not ideal for observing overall morphology. Electron microscopes (D) use electron beams and are best for viewing detailed structures at high magnification, but are not suitable for observing living organisms due to the need for vacuum conditions.
Question 6 of 9
The establishment and further spreading of an infectious disease within a new population is a process called:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: emergence. The term emergence refers to the process of a new infectious disease appearing and spreading within a population. It signifies the initial introduction and establishment of the disease in the new population. Explanation for other choices: B: Adoption does not accurately describe the process of a disease spreading within a new population. C: Inclusion is not a term commonly used to describe the spread of infectious diseases. D: Appearance is too vague and does not capture the complexity of the process of establishment and spreading of an infectious disease.
Question 7 of 9
Anti-tetanus gamma globulin is produced by hyperimmunization of donors with tetanus anatoxin. What class of immunoglobulins prevails in this preparation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: IgG. Anti-tetanus gamma globulin is produced by hyperimmunization, leading to a high concentration of specific antibodies, predominantly IgG. IgG is the most abundant immunoglobulin in the blood and provides long-term immunity against tetanus. IgA is mainly found in mucosal areas, not in gamma globulin preparations. IgM is the first antibody produced in response to an infection and is not the prevailing class in this preparation. IgE is associated with allergic reactions and parasitic infections, not with anti-tetanus immunity.
Question 8 of 9
Which bacterium is known as a common cause of hospital-acquired infections?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Staphylococcus aureus. This bacterium is known as a common cause of hospital-acquired infections due to its ability to colonize the skin and mucous membranes of healthcare workers and patients. Staphylococcus aureus can cause various infections, including surgical site infections and bloodstream infections, in healthcare settings. Rationale: 1. Clostridium botulinum is known for causing foodborne botulism, not hospital-acquired infections. 2. Treponema pallidum causes syphilis, which is primarily transmitted through sexual contact, not hospital settings. 3. Mycobacterium leprae causes leprosy, which is not commonly associated with hospital-acquired infections. In summary, Staphylococcus aureus is the correct answer as it is a common cause of hospital-acquired infections due to its prevalence in healthcare environments, unlike the other choices which are not typically associated with hospital-acquired infections.
Question 9 of 9
Laboratory diagnosis of Rotavirus infection includes
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Cell cultures. Rotavirus diagnosis involves detecting viral antigens in stool samples using cell cultures. Cell cultures allow for the replication of the virus, facilitating its identification. A: Egg inoculation and B: Sensitive laboratory animals are not commonly used for Rotavirus diagnosis due to ethical concerns and practical limitations. C: Ascoli test is used for detecting specific proteins in serum, not for Rotavirus detection in stool samples. In summary, cell cultures are the most appropriate method for laboratory diagnosis of Rotavirus infection due to their ability to support viral replication and antigen detection.