ATI RN
Pharmacology Cardiovascular Drugs Quiz Questions
Question 1 of 5
Bezafibrate:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Bezafibrate is a fibrate medication used to treat high cholesterol and triglyceride levels. The correct answer is A) Lowers plasma triglyceride. Bezafibrate works by activating peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor alpha (PPAR-alpha), leading to increased lipolysis and decreased triglyceride production in the liver. This mechanism effectively lowers plasma triglyceride levels. Option B) Is ineffective post cholecystectomy is incorrect because bezafibrate's mechanism of action is not related to cholecystectomy or gallbladder function. Option C) Inhibits lipoprotein lipase is incorrect because bezafibrate actually stimulates lipoprotein lipase activity, which helps in the breakdown of triglycerides. Option D) Is indicated in alcohol-induced hyperlipidemia is incorrect as while bezafibrate can be used to treat hyperlipidemia, it is not specifically indicated for alcohol-induced cases. In an educational context, understanding the mechanism of action of cardiovascular drugs like bezafibrate is crucial for healthcare professionals in managing patients with dyslipidemia. Knowing how each drug works helps in making informed decisions regarding treatment options and patient care.
Question 2 of 5
We have a patient who is diagnosed with variant (vasospastic) angina. Which of the following drugs would be most appropriate, and generally regarded as most effective, for long-term therapy aimed at reducing the incidence or severity of the coronary vasospasm?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In the context of variant (vasospastic) angina, the most appropriate and effective long-term therapy for reducing coronary vasospasm is nitroglycerin (Option D). Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator that acts by relaxing smooth muscle in blood vessels, including those in the coronary arteries. This vasodilation helps to increase blood flow to the heart muscle, reducing the incidence and severity of vasospasms. Aspirin (Option A) is commonly used for its antiplatelet effects in preventing thrombus formation but does not directly address vasospasm in variant angina. Atorvastatin (Option B) is a statin used to lower cholesterol levels and reduce the risk of atherosclerosis-related events, not specifically targeting vasospasm. Propranolol (Option C) is a beta-blocker that helps reduce heart rate and blood pressure, but it is not the first-line choice for variant angina. In an educational context, understanding the mechanism of action of each drug is crucial for selecting the appropriate pharmacological treatment for variant angina. Nitroglycerin's vasodilatory effects directly target the underlying cause of vasospasms in this condition, making it the preferred choice for long-term therapy in this scenario. Students should grasp the rationale behind drug selection based on the pathophysiology of the condition to provide optimal patient care.
Question 3 of 5
An older client has recently been prescribed sertraline (Zoloft). The client’s spouse is taking paroxetine (Paxil). A nurse assesses that the client is experiencing restlessness, tachycardia, diaphoresis, and tremors. Which complication should a nurse suspect, and why?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is option D: Serotonin syndrome; possibly caused by ingestion of two different SSRIs. Serotonin syndrome is a potentially life-threatening condition that occurs due to excessive serotonin levels in the body. When two drugs that increase serotonin levels, such as SSRIs, are taken together, it can lead to this syndrome. Option A is incorrect because neuroleptic malignant syndrome is not caused by ingestion of SSRIs. Option B is also incorrect as MAOIs are not typically prescribed with SSRIs due to the risk of serotonin syndrome. Option C is not the best choice as MAOIs are more commonly associated with serotonin syndrome when combined with SSRIs. Educationally, this question highlights the importance of thorough medication reconciliation and understanding potential drug interactions, especially when it comes to drugs that affect neurotransmitter levels like SSRIs. Nurses must be vigilant in monitoring for signs of serotonin syndrome in patients taking multiple serotonergic medications to prevent serious complications.
Question 4 of 5
Sertraline (Zoloft) has been prescribed for a patient with symptoms of major depression. Which factor was probably most important in the physician's decision to use an SSRI?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In the context of pharmacology, particularly in the treatment of major depression, the physician's decision to prescribe Sertraline (Zoloft), an SSRI, is most likely influenced by the drug's good side-effect profile. SSRIs are commonly preferred in the treatment of depression due to their favorable side-effect profile compared to older antidepressants like tricyclics. This class of drugs is associated with fewer anticholinergic effects, sedation, and cardiovascular complications, making them safer and better tolerated by patients. Regarding the other options: - Less expense for the patient (Option B) may be a consideration in some cases, but when selecting a medication for a serious condition like major depression, efficacy and safety usually take precedence over cost. - Increase in medication compliance (Option C) is important but not the primary reason for choosing an SSRI. While adherence to treatment is crucial, the choice of an SSRI is more about its efficacy and tolerability. - Rapid rate of absorption from the GI tract (Option D) is not the primary factor in selecting an SSRI for depression. While absorption rate can be important for some drugs, in the case of SSRIs, the focus is more on their mechanism of action and side-effect profile. In an educational context, understanding the rationale behind drug selection in the treatment of specific conditions helps students grasp the importance of considering factors such as efficacy, safety, and tolerability when prescribing medications. This knowledge is essential for healthcare professionals to make informed decisions that optimize patient outcomes and minimize risks.
Question 5 of 5
An obese patient has schizophrenia. Medications that block which receptors would contribute to further weight gain?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is A) H1 receptors. Antipsychotic medications used to treat schizophrenia often have side effects that can contribute to weight gain. Histamine (H1) receptor blockade is a common side effect of many antipsychotic drugs, leading to increased appetite and weight gain in patients. Therefore, blocking H1 receptors would likely further exacerbate weight gain in an obese patient with schizophrenia. Option B) 5 HT2 receptors are also involved in weight regulation, but blocking these receptors is more commonly associated with weight loss rather than weight gain. Option C) GABA and Option D) Acetylcholine are not directly implicated in weight gain associated with antipsychotic medications. Understanding the pharmacological mechanisms of different drug classes is crucial in pharmacology. It is essential for healthcare professionals to be aware of potential side effects of medications to make informed decisions regarding patient care. By knowing the specific receptor interactions and side effect profiles of drugs, healthcare providers can better manage and anticipate adverse effects in their patients.