Beta-receptor antagonists cause:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Inhibition of glycogenolysis. 1. Beta-receptor antagonists inhibit the action of catecholamines (epinephrine, norepinephrine). 2. Catecholamines normally stimulate beta-receptors, promoting glycogenolysis. 3. Therefore, beta-blockers block this stimulation, leading to the inhibition of glycogenolysis. Summary: A: Stimulation of lipolysis - Incorrect. Beta-blockers do not stimulate lipolysis. B: Stimulation of gluconeogenesis - Incorrect. Beta-blockers do not stimulate gluconeogenesis. D: Stimulation of insulin secretion - Incorrect. Beta-blockers actually inhibit insulin secretion.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Clonazepam. Clonazepam is a long-acting benzodiazepine that is effectively used to treat both absence and myoclonic seizures due to its ability to enhance the inhibitory neurotransmitter GABA. It has a long half-life, allowing for sustained seizure control. Primidone (A) is mainly used for tonic-clonic seizures, Carbamazepine (B) is more effective for focal seizures, and Phenytoin (D) is typically used for tonic-clonic and focal seizures, but not specifically for absence or myoclonic seizures.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Kappa-receptors. Kappa-receptors are responsible for dysphoria and vasomotor stimulation because their activation leads to these effects. Mu-receptors are primarily associated with analgesia and respiratory depression, while Delta-receptors are involved in modulating pain perception. Choosing D (All of the above) is incorrect as Mu and Delta receptors do not directly cause dysphoria or vasomotor stimulation.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Inflammation or tissue damage. Non-narcotic analgesics, such as NSAIDs, work by reducing inflammation and inhibiting pain signals. Inflammation and tissue damage often result in pain, making non-narcotic analgesics effective in relieving these types of pain. Trauma, myocardial infarction, and surgery may also cause pain, but non-narcotic analgesics are specifically designed to target inflammation and tissue damage, making them most effective in this context. Therefore, choice A is correct because it aligns with the mechanism of action of non-narcotic analgesics. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not specifically address the target of action for non-narcotic analgesics.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Risperidone, because it has high affinity for both D2 and 5-HT2 receptors. Risperidone's strong binding to these receptors contributes to its efficacy in treating psychosis. Droperidol (A) primarily acts on D2 receptors but has limited 5-HT2 affinity. Clozapine (B) has higher affinity for 5-HT2 than D2 receptors. Thiothixene (C) has higher affinity for D2 receptors but relatively lower for 5-HT2 receptors. In summary, Risperidone stands out as it targets both D2 and 5-HT2 receptors, making it a suitable choice for treating psychosis.