ATI RN
Safety Pharmacology Across the Lifespan ATI Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
Beta 2 adrenergic agonists act by selectively activating the beta 2 receptors in the bronchial smooth muscle, resulting in bronchodilation. As a result of this
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is A) bronchospasm is relieved. Beta 2 adrenergic agonists, by selectively activating beta 2 receptors in the bronchial smooth muscle, cause bronchodilation, which leads to the relief of bronchospasm. This mechanism helps in opening up the airways and improving breathing in conditions like asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Option B) histamine release is potentiated is incorrect because beta 2 agonists actually inhibit histamine release, which can contribute to the anti-inflammatory effects seen in conditions involving bronchoconstriction. Option C) ciliary motility is decreased is also incorrect. Beta 2 adrenergic agonists do not affect ciliary motility; instead, they primarily target bronchial smooth muscle to induce bronchodilation. Understanding the pharmacological actions of beta 2 adrenergic agonists is crucial in the field of safety pharmacology, especially when managing respiratory conditions. By knowing how these medications work, healthcare providers can make informed decisions about their appropriate use, potential side effects, and monitoring parameters for patients. This knowledge is essential for promoting safe and effective pharmacological interventions across the lifespan.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following medications is used to prevent or treat thrombosis in clients who cannot take heparin due to heparin induced thrombocytopenia.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A) Argatroban. Argatroban is a direct thrombin inhibitor that is used in clients who cannot take heparin due to heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT). Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia is a serious complication where the body forms antibodies against heparin, leading to a drop in platelet count and an increased risk of thrombosis. Argatroban is a suitable alternative in these cases as it directly inhibits thrombin without affecting platelet function. Option B) Fondaparinux is a factor Xa inhibitor and is not used specifically for clients with HIT. Option C) Dabigatran is also a direct thrombin inhibitor but is not typically used in clients with HIT. Option D) Desirudin is a direct thrombin inhibitor, but it is not commonly used to treat HIT. In an educational context, understanding the appropriate anticoagulants for specific conditions like HIT is crucial for nursing practice. Nurses need to be aware of alternative medications for clients who have contraindications to standard therapies to provide safe and effective care. Recognizing the indications and mechanisms of action of different anticoagulants ensures that the right medication is administered to the right patient, promoting positive health outcomes.
Question 3 of 5
In case of heparin toxicity, which of the following medications can bind with heparin and form a heparin protamine complex that has no anticoagulant properties?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In cases of heparin toxicity, the correct medication to administer is a heparin antidote called Protamine. Protamine works by binding to heparin and forming a stable complex, rendering heparin inactive and reversing its anticoagulant effects. This is essential in preventing excessive bleeding and managing heparin overdose situations effectively. Option A: IV Push Protamine is incorrect because Protamine should be administered slowly to prevent adverse reactions such as hypotension or anaphylaxis. It is not recommended to administer Protamine as an IV push. Option B: IV Bolus Protamine is also incorrect for the same reasons as mentioned above. Administering Protamine as a bolus can lead to rapid release of histamine, causing severe allergic reactions. Option C: IV Drip Protamine is incorrect as Protamine is typically administered as a slow IV infusion over a period of time to minimize adverse effects and ensure effective reversal of heparin's anticoagulant effects. Understanding the correct administration of Protamine is crucial in the clinical setting, especially in emergencies involving heparin toxicity. Nurses and healthcare providers must be knowledgeable about the appropriate dosing and administration techniques to ensure patient safety and optimal outcomes.
Question 4 of 5
The history and physical examination indicates that the patient may have taken too much warfarin. The nurse anticipates that the patient will receive which antidote?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct antidote for a patient who may have taken too much warfarin is option A) Vitamin K. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that works by inhibiting the synthesis of certain clotting factors in the liver that require vitamin K. Therefore, if a patient has ingested an excess amount of warfarin, it can lead to excessive bleeding due to a depletion of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. Administering Vitamin K helps to replenish these clotting factors and reverse the effects of warfarin overdose. Option B) Protamine Sulfate is used as an antidote for heparin, not warfarin. Protamine sulfate works by neutralizing the anticoagulant effects of heparin. Option C) Potassium Chloride is used to treat or prevent low levels of potassium in the blood and is not indicated for warfarin overdose. Option D) Vitamin E does not have any antidote properties for warfarin overdose. Vitamin E is a fat-soluble vitamin with antioxidant properties but is not involved in the clotting cascade affected by warfarin. In an educational context, understanding the antidotes for common medications is crucial for nurses to provide safe and effective care to patients. Understanding the rationale behind each antidote helps nurses make informed decisions in emergency situations. It also underscores the importance of medication safety, accurate dosing, and monitoring for adverse effects to prevent medication errors and ensure patient well-being.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is assessing a client and notes that he is receiving finasteride (Proscar). The client denies having any history of a significant prostate disorder. What is the best assessment question for the nurse to ask at this time?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the best assessment question for the nurse to ask the client receiving finasteride (Proscar) is "A) Do you have male pattern baldness?" The rationale behind this is that finasteride is commonly prescribed to treat benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) and male pattern baldness. By asking about male pattern baldness, the nurse can confirm if the client is receiving the medication for this indication. Option B) "Do you have erectile dysfunction?" is incorrect because although finasteride can be used to treat symptoms of BPH which may include urinary issues, it is not primarily indicated for erectile dysfunction. Option C) "Do you have a stomach ulcer?" is incorrect as there is no direct relationship between finasteride and stomach ulcers. Option D) "Do you have high blood pressure?" is incorrect as finasteride is not commonly used to treat high blood pressure. In an educational context, understanding the indications of medications is crucial for nurses to provide safe and effective care to their clients. By knowing the primary uses of medications such as finasteride, nurses can better assess and monitor clients for potential side effects or complications related to the prescribed treatment. This question also highlights the importance of thorough assessment skills in nursing practice.