Before assisting a patient with ambulation 2 days after total hip arthroplasty, which action is most important for the nurse to take?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, administer prescribed pain medication, as it ensures the patient's comfort and enables safe ambulation post-total hip arthroplasty. Pain management is crucial for successful ambulation and overall recovery. Observing output from the surgical drain (A) is important but not the priority at this time. Instructing the patient about the benefits of early ambulation (C) is essential but should come after pain management. Changing the dressing and documenting the wound appearance (D) is necessary but can be done after addressing the patient's pain.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: a loss of height. Osteoporosis is characterized by decreased bone density, leading to a loss of height due to compression fractures in the spine. Bowed legs (choice A) are not typically associated with osteoporosis. The report of frequent falls (choice C) may indicate balance issues but is not specific to osteoporosis. An aversion to dairy products (choice D) may lead to a lack of calcium intake, but it is not a direct assessment finding for osteoporosis. Therefore, the presence of a loss of height is the most indicative assessment finding for osteoporosis in a 55-year-old patient.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Teach about the use of vitamin D supplements. Osteomalacia is a condition characterized by a deficiency of vitamin D, leading to weak and soft bones. Vitamin D supplements help in improving calcium absorption and bone mineralization. By educating the patient about the importance of vitamin D supplements, the nurse addresses the root cause of osteomalacia. Choice B is incorrect because while weight-bearing exercise is beneficial for bone health, it does not directly address the vitamin D deficiency seen in osteomalacia. Choice C is incorrect as bisphosphonates are typically used in conditions like osteoporosis, not osteomalacia. Choice D is incorrect as sunscreen use, although important for skin health, does not address the underlying vitamin D deficiency in osteomalacia.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Onychomycosis. This is a fungal infection of the nail caused by dermatophytes, yeasts, or molds. In this case, the description of the nail appearing opaque and white, with the fungus appearing to digest the keratin, is consistent with onychomycosis. The fact that the client has had this for years also aligns with the chronic nature of onychomycosis. Explanation for why other choices are incorrect: A: Candidiasis is a fungal infection caused by Candida species, typically affecting mucous membranes or skin folds, not nails. B: Cellulitis is a bacterial infection involving the deeper layers of the skin, not related to fungal nail infections. D: Tinea corporis is a fungal infection of the skin, commonly known as ringworm, not specific to nails.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because sun radiation can cause damage to the DNA in epidermal cells, leading to mutations and skin cancer. Additionally, sun exposure can generate free radicals, which can further damage skin cells. Autoimmune response (A) is not related to the sun's damaging effects. Compensatory increases in melanin production (B) is a protective response to sun exposure, not a direct cause of damage. Hyperkeratinization and lesion formation (D) are not specific processes related to sun radiation damage.