ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 5 Questions
Question 1 of 9
Before administering an MMR (measles, mumps, and rubella) vaccine to a 15-month-old, which question should the nurse ask the mother of the child?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct question for the nurse to ask the mother before administering the MMR vaccine to a 15-month-old is about the child's allergy to antibiotics. This is crucial because the MMR vaccine contains neomycin, an antibiotic, and being allergic to antibiotics like neomycin is a contraindication for the MMR vaccine. Asking about sore throats, eating habits, or exposure to infections is not directly relevant to the administration of the MMR vaccine.
Question 2 of 9
Under the health services support area concept, how is the medical care under the MEDCOM divided?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Under the health services support area concept, medical care under MEDCOM is divided into eight geographical areas of responsibility. Each of these areas is designated as a health services support region, and they are further subdivided into two or more health service areas. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not accurately describe how the medical care under MEDCOM is divided.
Question 3 of 9
Interacting with the patient and their family to obtain subjective information is part of which of the following steps for determining and fulfilling the nursing care needs of the patient?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Assessment. Assessment in nursing involves obtaining subjective information from the patient and their family to gather data about the patient's health status. This step is crucial as it helps identify the patient's needs, strengths, and areas requiring intervention. Choice A, Evaluation, is incorrect as evaluation comes after the implementation of the care plan to determine its effectiveness. Choice B, Planning, is also incorrect as it involves developing a plan of care based on the assessment data. Choice C, Implementation, is the phase where the nursing interventions are carried out based on the established care plan.
Question 4 of 9
In patients with heart failure, which type of diet is most recommended?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A low-sodium diet is most recommended for patients with heart failure. This type of diet helps manage fluid retention by reducing the amount of sodium in the body, which in turn decreases the workload on the heart. High-sodium diets can lead to fluid retention and worsen heart failure symptoms. High-fat and low-carbohydrate diets are not specifically recommended for heart failure patients as the focus is primarily on controlling sodium intake.
Question 5 of 9
In which situation(s) can personal health information be disclosed?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Personal health information can be disclosed in various situations. Compliance with legal proceedings allows for disclosure under specific legal requirements. Disclosure for research purposes is permitted in limited circumstances with appropriate approvals. In emergencies, information can be shared with family members or significant others. Therefore, all of the choices are correct as they represent valid scenarios for disclosing personal health information.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following drugs contribute to peptic ulcers?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). NSAIDs are known to contribute to peptic ulcers by affecting the gastric mucosa. Choice A, Antacids, actually help to alleviate symptoms of peptic ulcers by neutralizing stomach acid. Choice B, Certain antibiotics, are used to treat H. pylori infections, a common cause of peptic ulcers. Choice C, Cholesterol-lowering medications, do not contribute to peptic ulcers.
Question 7 of 9
In which situation(s) does the nurse act as a client advocate?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because all the situations listed reflect aspects of client advocacy. Pulling the curtain around the client's bed while changing a dressing ensures privacy and dignity for the client, which is an essential part of advocacy. Contacting the health care provider to request a meeting for the client involves advocating for the client's needs and preferences. Ensuring access to medical information by appropriate personnel only is another way the nurse advocates for the client by safeguarding their confidentiality and promoting proper communication. Choices A, B, and C all demonstrate different aspects of advocacy, making option D the correct choice.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse supervises care of a client in Buck's traction. The nurse determines that care is appropriate if which of the following is observed? (Select all that apply)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct care for a client in Buck's traction includes turning the client to the unaffected side to prevent complications such as pressure ulcers. Additionally, asking the client to dorsiflex the foot on the affected leg helps prevent foot drop. Removing the foam boot three times per day to inspect the skin is unnecessary and could disrupt the traction, so it is not appropriate. Therefore, choices A and D are incorrect.
Question 9 of 9
In assessing the client's chest, which position best shows chest expansion as well as its movements?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The position that best shows chest expansion as well as its movements is when the client is sitting. When the client is seated, their chest is in an optimal position for observing the full range of chest expansion during breathing. This position allows for easy visualization of chest movements and expansion as the client breathes in and out, providing a comprehensive assessment of respiratory function. Choice B (Prone) and Choice D (Supine) involve positions where the chest's movements and expansion are less visible and may not provide an accurate representation of respiratory function. Choice C (Sidelying) can also limit the visibility of chest expansion compared to the sitting position.