ATI RN
Medical Microbiology Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Before a surgery the patient was prescribed a synthetic antiprotozoal drug for prevention of wound infection. The prescribed drug is highly effective against Helicobacter pylori. Name this drug:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Metronidazole is a synthetic antiprotozoal drug commonly used for wound infection prevention. 2. It is highly effective against Helicobacter pylori, a bacterium that causes stomach ulcers. 3. Metronidazole works by disrupting DNA structure in bacteria, leading to their death. 4. Chingamin (Chloroquine) is an antimalarial drug, not effective against Helicobacter pylori. 5. Doxycycline hydrochloride is an antibiotic used for bacterial infections, not specifically for H. pylori. 6. Aciclovir is an antiviral drug used for herpes infections, not effective against H. pylori. Summary: Metronidazole is the correct answer as it is specifically effective against H. pylori and commonly used for wound infection prevention. Other choices are incorrect as they target different types of infections.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the following bacteria produces a toxin that causes severe diarrhea?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because all three bacteria listed can produce toxins that cause severe diarrhea. Clostridium difficile produces toxins that can lead to antibiotic-associated diarrhea, Vibrio cholerae produces a toxin that causes cholera, and certain strains of Escherichia coli produce toxins that result in severe diarrhea. Therefore, choosing option D is correct because all the mentioned bacteria can cause severe diarrhea. Options A, B, and C are incorrect individually because each bacterium listed can produce a toxin resulting in severe diarrhea.
Question 3 of 9
A patient of oral surgery department has developed a purulent complication. Bacteriological analysis of the wound discharge allowed to isolate a culture producing a blue-and-green pigment. Which of the listed microorganisms may be a causative agent of the infection?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is known for producing a blue-green pigment called pyocyanin, which is characteristic of its colonies. This bacterium is commonly associated with purulent infections, especially in immunocompromised patients. Proteus vulgaris (B) is not typically associated with blue-green pigment production. Bacillus subtilis (C) is not a common pathogen in wound infections. Klebsiella pneumoniae (D) does not produce blue-green pigment and is more commonly associated with respiratory infections. Therefore, based on the clinical presentation and pigment production, Pseudomonas aeruginosa is the most likely causative agent in this case.
Question 4 of 9
Which bacterium is responsible for causing botulism?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clostridium botulinum. This bacterium produces the neurotoxin responsible for botulism. It thrives in anaerobic environments like improperly canned foods. Clostridium difficile (B) causes colitis, not botulism. Staphylococcus aureus (C) causes food poisoning but not botulism. Escherichia coli (D) can cause gastrointestinal illness but not botulism.
Question 5 of 9
Which of the following statements regarding the antigenic shift is NOT true?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because antigenic shift is a major change in the influenza virus where genetic material from different influenza viruses mix to create a new subtype. This is a large-scale change that results in a novel virus with a different antigenic composition. Option A and B are incorrect because antigenic shift does involve the exchange of genetic information between animal and human influenza A viruses, and it does occur when animal or avian influenza viruses of type A directly pass into the human population. Option C is incorrect because antigenic shift is not related to the recirculation of a previously circulating influenza strain.
Question 6 of 9
The lipopolysaccharides of gram negative bacteria consists of all the following types except:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Protoplast. Lipopolysaccharides of Gram-negative bacteria consist of three main components: O-specific polysaccharide chain, R-specific polysaccharide chain, and Lipid A. Protoplast is not a component of lipopolysaccharides. O-specific polysaccharide chain is responsible for serotype specificity, R-specific polysaccharide chain varies among strains, and Lipid A is the endotoxin component. Protoplast refers to a bacterial cell devoid of a cell wall, which is not a component of lipopolysaccharides.
Question 7 of 9
The function of the bacterial endospore is to:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: ensure survival under harsh conditions. Bacterial endospores are dormant, resistant structures that form under adverse conditions to protect the bacterial DNA and allow the bacterium to survive extreme environments. This function is crucial for the bacterium's long-term survival. Choice A is incorrect as endospores do not directly produce exotoxins. Choice B is incorrect as endospores do not store nutrients but rather protect the bacterium's genetic material. Choice D is incorrect as endospores do not enhance motility but rather enable survival during unfavorable conditions.
Question 8 of 9
Which IS NOT true about sexually transmitted infections?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Define sexually transmitted infections (STIs) as infections primarily spread through sexual contact. Step 2: Understand that STIs can also be transmitted through non-sexual means like blood transfusions. Step 3: Recognize that choice C is incorrect as it limits STIs to only sexually transmitted infections. Step 4: Therefore, the correct answer is C as it does not encompass all possible modes of transmission for STIs. Summary: Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they all accurately describe the characteristics of sexually transmitted infections, while choice C is incorrect as it excludes other potential modes of transmission for STIs.
Question 9 of 9
A saucer-shaped liquefaction in a gelatin stab is referred to as:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: crateriform. In a gelatin stab, a saucer-shaped liquefaction indicates a depression or crater-like shape. This term accurately describes the appearance of the liquefaction. A: napiform means turnip-shaped, which is not relevant to the shape in a gelatin stab. B: saccate means pouch-like, which does not match the saucer-shaped description. D: stratiform refers to something in layers, which is not applicable to the shape of the liquefaction. Therefore, C is the most appropriate term to describe the saucer-shaped liquefaction in a gelatin stab.