ATI RN
Microbiology A Systems Approach Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Basing upon the data of laboratory assessment of sanitary state of soil in a certain territory, the soil was found to be low-contaminated according to the sanitary indicative value; contaminated according to the coli titer; low-contaminated according to the anaerobe titer (Cl. perfringens). This is indicative of:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: The soil is low-contaminated according to the sanitary indicative value, which indicates that the contamination is recent. Step 2: The soil is contaminated according to coli titer, suggesting the presence of coliform bacteria typically found in fresh fecal matter. Step 3: The soil is low-contaminated according to the anaerobe titer (Cl. perfringens), which is an indicator of recent fecal contamination. Step 4: Based on the above steps, the correct answer is A: Fresh fecal contamination, as the presence of coliform bacteria and recent anaerobe titer levels point to recent fecal contamination. Summary: B: Old fecal contamination - Incorrect because the indicators suggest recent contamination. C: Insufficient intensity of soil humification - Incorrect as it is not related to the specific indicators mentioned in the question. D: Constant entry of organic protein contaminations - Incorrect as the indicators point towards fecal contamination, not protein
Question 2 of 9
A 49-year-old countryman got an itching papule on the dorsum of his right hand. In the centre there is a vesicle with serosanginous exudate. Within the next 2 days the patient developed a painless edema of hand and forearm. On the 4th day the temperature rose to 38,5oC, in the right axillary region a large painful lymph node was found. One daybefore the onset of the disease the patient had examined a dead calf. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The most likely diagnosis is D: Lymphocutaneous tularemia. The key clues include exposure to a dead animal, vesicle with serosanginous exudate, painless edema progressing to lymph node involvement, and fever. Tularemia is caused by Francisella tularensis, commonly acquired through contact with infected animals. The characteristic ulcer at the site of entry, lymphadenopathy, and systemic symptoms point towards tularemia. Cutaneous anthrax (A) presents with a painless ulcer and black eschar. Bubonic plague (B) typically presents with buboes (swollen lymph nodes) and fever. Carbuncle (C) is a deep skin infection typically caused by Staphylococcus aureus.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the following bacteria is known for producing a capsule that helps it avoid the immune system?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Streptococcus pneumoniae. This bacterium is known for producing a capsule that helps it evade the immune system. The capsule acts as a protective barrier, making it difficult for the immune system to recognize and attack the bacteria. Streptococcus pneumoniae is a common cause of pneumonia and meningitis. Explanation for why other choices are incorrect: B: Escherichia coli does not typically produce a capsule for immune evasion. It is more commonly associated with gastrointestinal infections. C: Salmonella enterica also does not produce a capsule for immune evasion. It is known for causing foodborne illness. D: Bacillus subtilis is a soil bacterium that is not known for producing a capsule to avoid the immune system.
Question 4 of 9
Which type of bacteria is responsible for causing tuberculosis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Mycobacterium tuberculosis is the bacteria responsible for causing tuberculosis. This bacterium has unique cell wall components that make it resistant to the body's immune defenses, allowing it to survive and multiply within the host. Streptococcus pyogenes (Choice A), Escherichia coli (Choice C), and Bacillus anthracis (Choice D) are not associated with tuberculosis. Streptococcus pyogenes is known for causing strep throat and skin infections, Escherichia coli is commonly involved in gastrointestinal infections, and Bacillus anthracis causes anthrax.
Question 5 of 9
Antibodies against influenza viruses in a patient's serum can be determined by;
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Reaction haemagglutination inhibition. This method is used to detect antibodies against influenza viruses by measuring the ability of the patient's serum to inhibit haemagglutination. This is a specific and sensitive technique for detecting influenza antibodies. A: Agglutination reaction is not specific for influenza viruses and may give false positives. B: Precipitation reaction in agar gel is not typically used for detecting influenza antibodies. D: Ration haemagglutination is not a standard method for detecting influenza antibodies.
Question 6 of 9
Which bacteria is a common cause of urinary tract infections (UTIs)?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Escherichia coli. E. coli is the most common cause of UTIs due to its ability to colonize the urinary tract. It possesses adhesive factors that enable it to attach to the bladder and cause infection. Clostridium tetani causes tetanus, Mycobacterium leprae causes leprosy, and Bacillus anthracis causes anthrax, none of which are typically associated with UTIs. E. coli's prevalence in the gut and its pathogenic mechanisms make it the leading cause of UTIs.
Question 7 of 9
A group of Ukrainian tourists returning from Samarqand was bringing with them gerbils. During examination in customs office ulcers were detected on the skin of the animals. What protozoa is the most likely to cause the disease in the animals, if mosquitoes are the carriers?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: 1. The presence of ulcers in animals suggests a parasitic infection. 2. Mosquitoes as carriers indicate a protozoan transmitted through insect bites. 3. Among the choices, Plasmodium falciparum causes malaria transmitted by mosquitoes. 4. Leishmania tropica major causes cutaneous leishmaniasis, not ulcers. 5. Balantidium coli causes intestinal infections, not skin ulcers. 6. Trypanosoma cruzi causes Chagas disease, not skin ulcers.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the following bacterial structures has endotoxic activity?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Lipopolysaccharides. Lipopolysaccharides (LPS) are major components of the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria and are known to have endotoxic activity. LPS can trigger a strong immune response leading to inflammation and septic shock. Choice B, Lipoproteins of Braun, are not known to have endotoxic activity. Choice C, Protein A, is a surface protein found in Staphylococcus aureus and is not associated with endotoxic activity. Choice D, None, is incorrect as LPS is indeed a bacterial structure with endotoxic activity.
Question 9 of 9
Peptidoglycan is typically found in the:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Peptidoglycan is a major component of bacterial cell walls, providing structural support and protection. The correct answer is A because peptidoglycan is typically found in the cell wall of bacteria. The cell wall is crucial for maintaining the shape of the bacterial cell and protecting it from external stresses. The plasma membrane (choice B) is primarily composed of phospholipids and proteins, not peptidoglycan. The nucleus (choice C) is found in eukaryotic cells and contains genetic material, not peptidoglycan. The endoplasmic reticulum (choice D) is an organelle involved in protein synthesis and lipid metabolism, but it does not contain peptidoglycan. Therefore, the correct answer is A as peptidoglycan is typically found in the cell wall of bacteria.