Bacteriological laboratory examines canned meat whether it contains botulinum toxin. For this purpose an extract of test specimen and antitoxic antibotulinic serum of A, B, E types were introduced to a group of mice under examination; a control group of mice got the extract without antibotulinic serum. What serological reaction was applied?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Neutralization. In this scenario, the antibotulinic serum of types A, B, and E were introduced to neutralize the botulinum toxin in the test specimen. The serological reaction applied here involves the neutralization of the toxin by the specific antibodies present in the serum. This process prevents the toxin from causing harm to the mice. Summary of other choices: B: Precipitation - This involves the formation of insoluble complexes between antigen and antibody, not the specific neutralization seen in this case. C: Complement binding - This involves activation of the complement system leading to cell lysis, not the direct neutralization of toxin. D: Double immune diffusion - This technique is used to determine the presence of specific antibodies or antigens based on their diffusion patterns, not the neutralization of toxin as seen in this scenario.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Streptococcus pneumoniae. This bacterium is the most likely causative agent based on the description of Gram-positive cocci in pairs with a capsule. S. pneumoniae is known for its characteristic morphology and the presence of a capsule, which helps in evading the immune system. It commonly causes pneumonia, especially in patients with a productive cough and fever. Incorrect choices: B: Klebsiella pneumoniae typically presents with a mucoid capsule and is associated with pneumonia in immunocompromised individuals. C: Neisseria meningitidis is a Gram-negative diplococcus and is more commonly associated with meningitis and septicemia. D: Staphylococcus aureus is a Gram-positive cocci, but it does not typically present in pairs with a capsule and is more commonly associated with skin and soft tissue infections.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Looking for Ernst-Babes granules. Laboratory diagnosis of rabies typically involves looking for Negri bodies in the brain tissue, intracerebrally infecting mice for virus isolation, and using immunofluorescence method to detect viral antigens. Ernst-Babes granules are not associated with rabies virus and are not used in the diagnosis of rabies. Therefore, choice C is incorrect.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Vibrio cholerae produces cholera toxin causing severe diarrhea. 2. Clostridium tetani causes tetanus, not diarrhea. 3. Clostridium botulinum causes botulism, not diarrhea. 4. Shigella dysenteriae causes dysentery, not typical diarrhea. Summary: A: Incorrect, causes tetanus. B: Incorrect, causes botulism. C: Correct, produces cholera toxin causing severe diarrhea. D: Incorrect, causes dysentery.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because Rickettsia requires living cells for growth and replication. Chick embryos, cell cultures, and lab animals provide a suitable environment for Rickettsia isolation. Skin-allergy tests (A) and serological methods for proving antibodies (B) are not directly used for isolating Rickettsia as they do not support the growth of the bacteria. "None of the above" (D) is incorrect as option C involves the appropriate methods for isolating Rickettsia.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: eukaryotic. Eukaryotic cells have a well-defined nucleus that encloses the genetic material. The nucleus is a distinguishing feature of eukaryotic cells, separating them from prokaryotic cells (choice A) which lack a nucleus. Anucleate cells (choice C) are cells that do not have a nucleus at all. Haploid cells (choice D) contain a single set of chromosomes, but this does not necessarily imply the presence of a nucleus. Therefore, the presence of a nucleus is what categorizes cells as eukaryotic.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Herpangina. Coxsackie Viruses are known to cause Herpangina, which is characterized by sore throat, fever, and painful blisters in the mouth and throat. This is because Coxsackie Viruses typically infect the throat and mouth mucosa. Hemorrhagic conjunctivitis (A) is commonly caused by Adenoviruses, not Coxsackie Viruses. Mumps (C) is caused by the Mumps virus, a completely different virus. Poliomyelitis (D) is caused by the Poliovirus, not Coxsackie Viruses. Therefore, the correct answer is B as it aligns with the known pathogenicity of Coxsackie Viruses.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Gram-positive rods with terminal spores suggest Clostridium genus. 2. Terminal spores are characteristic of Clostridium perfringens. 3. C. perfringens is known to cause wound infections. 4. Therefore, the most likely causative agent is Clostridium perfringens. Summary: A: Clostridium perfringens is correct due to its characteristic features and association with wound infections. B: Bacillus anthracis does not typically form terminal spores. C: Clostridium tetani causes tetanus, not wound infections. D: Bacillus cereus does not produce terminal spores like Clostridium perfringens.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because viruses are sensitive to interferon, a natural defense mechanism of the body against viral infections. Interferon helps to inhibit viral replication. A: Viruses are cell-free infectious particles, not living systems. B: Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites as they require host cells to replicate. C: Viruses can have either DNA or RNA as genetic material, which is a characteristic feature.