ATI RN
Microbiology Chapter 13 Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Bacteriological laboratory examines canned meat whether it contains botulinum toxin. For this purpose an extract of test specimen and antitoxic antibotulinic serum of A, B, E types were introduced to a group of mice under examination; a control group of mice got the extract without antibotulinic serum. What serological reaction was applied?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Neutralization. In this scenario, the antibotulinic serum of types A, B, and E were introduced to neutralize the botulinum toxin in the test specimen. The serological reaction applied here involves the neutralization of the toxin by the specific antibodies present in the serum. This process prevents the toxin from causing harm to the mice. Summary of other choices: B: Precipitation - This involves the formation of insoluble complexes between antigen and antibody, not the specific neutralization seen in this case. C: Complement binding - This involves activation of the complement system leading to cell lysis, not the direct neutralization of toxin. D: Double immune diffusion - This technique is used to determine the presence of specific antibodies or antigens based on their diffusion patterns, not the neutralization of toxin as seen in this scenario.
Question 2 of 9
Which description matches most to adenoviruses:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Adenoviruses are DNA viruses, so choices B and C (ssRNA and DNA) are incorrect. 2. Adenoviruses have a middle-sized, naked icosahedral capsid, making choice A the correct description. 3. Choice D is incorrect as adenoviruses do have specific characteristics, making "None of the above" an inaccurate option. In summary, the correct answer A is supported by the fact that adenoviruses have a middle-sized, naked icosahedral capsid and contain double-stranded DNA. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the characteristics of adenoviruses.
Question 3 of 9
Which bacteria is responsible for causing the disease known as cholera?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Vibrio cholerae. Cholera is caused by Vibrio cholerae, a bacterium that produces a toxin leading to severe diarrhea and dehydration. Clostridium botulinum (A) causes botulism, Salmonella enterica (C) causes salmonellosis, and Escherichia coli (D) can cause various illnesses but not cholera. Vibrio cholerae is the only bacteria specifically known for causing cholera.
Question 4 of 9
A wound culture revealed Gram-negative rods that are lactose non-fermenters. The bacteria were isolated from a patient with a deep tissue infection. What is the most likely microorganism?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pseudomonas aeruginosa. P. aeruginosa is a Gram-negative rod that is a lactose non-fermenter commonly associated with deep tissue infections. It is an opportunistic pathogen known for its ability to cause infections in immunocompromised individuals. P. aeruginosa is often resistant to multiple antibiotics and can form biofilms, making it difficult to treat. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: B: Escherichia coli is a Gram-negative rod that ferments lactose and is commonly found in the gastrointestinal tract. It is not typically associated with deep tissue infections. C: Salmonella typhi is a Gram-negative rod that causes typhoid fever, primarily affecting the gastrointestinal system, not deep tissue infections. D: Shigella dysenteriae is a Gram-negative rod that causes bacillary dysentery, which primarily affects the gastrointestinal tract and does not typically cause deep tissue infections.
Question 5 of 9
A 9 y.o. child has been taking antibiotics on account of bronchopneumonia for a long time. There appeared pain and burning in the area of mucous membrane of his lips and tongue. Objectively: mucous membrane of lips and tongue has caseous and grey plaques that can be easily removed by a spatula leaving hyperemia foci on their spot. Microscopic examination of the plaques revealed mycelium. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The most probable diagnosis is A: Candidous cheilitis. Candidous cheilitis is a fungal infection caused by Candida species. In this case, the presence of mycelium on the plaques indicates a fungal infection. The symptoms of pain, burning, and grey plaques that can be easily removed leaving hyperemia are typical for Candidous cheilitis. Choice B (Exfoliative cheilitis) is characterized by scaling and peeling of the lips, not plaques with mycelium. Choice C (Leukoplakia) is a precancerous condition causing white plaques that cannot be easily removed. Choice D (Contactant allergic cheilitis) is an allergic reaction causing inflammation, not fungal plaques.
Question 6 of 9
The Marburg virus was originally spread by:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: green monkeys. The Marburg virus was first identified in 1967 in Marburg and Frankfurt, Germany, after outbreaks in lab workers exposed to infected African green monkeys. These monkeys were imported from Uganda. The virus is believed to be originally endemic in certain species of African bats and is transmitted to humans through contact with infected animals. Choice A, laboratory rats, is incorrect as the virus did not originate from rats. Choice B, birds, and Choice D, wild turkeys, are also incorrect as there is no evidence linking these animals to the transmission of the Marburg virus.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the statements is false:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because spirochaetes are not bacilli; they are spiral-shaped bacteria. Bacilli are rod-shaped bacteria, making statement A false. Statement B is true as diplococci are spherical bacteria occurring in pairs. Statement C is true as rod-shaped bacteria have one diameter longer than the other. Statement D is true as coccobacilli are short, oval-shaped bacteria resembling cocci and rods. In summary, spirochaetes are spiral-shaped, not bacilli, making statement A false.
Question 8 of 9
Which is the most abundant immunoglobin in a normal healthy adult
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. IgG is the most abundant immunoglobin in a normal healthy adult due to its long half-life and diverse functions. 2. It plays a crucial role in immune response by neutralizing pathogens and enhancing phagocytosis. 3. IgA is mainly found in mucosal areas, IgE is involved in allergic reactions, and IgD's function is not fully understood. 4. Therefore, IgG is the correct answer as it is the predominant immunoglobin in circulation, providing broad immune protection.
Question 9 of 9
Microscopy of a smear from a patient with foul-smelling diarrhea revealed large ciliated protozoa with a kidney-shaped macronucleus. What is the diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct diagnosis is A: Balantidiasis. The presence of large ciliated protozoa with a kidney-shaped macronucleus is characteristic of Balantidium coli, the causative agent of balantidiasis. The ciliated trophozoites of Balantidium coli are unique compared to the other choices. Giardiasis is caused by Giardia lamblia, which has flagella and not cilia. Amoebiasis is caused by Entamoeba histolytica, which lacks cilia. Trichomoniasis is caused by Trichomonas vaginalis, which also lacks cilia. Therefore, based on the specific morphology described, the correct diagnosis is Balantidiasis.