ATI RN
microbiology a systems approach test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Bacterial replication is accomplished primarily by:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Binary fission is the correct answer for bacterial replication because it is the process by which bacteria divide into two identical daughter cells. During binary fission, the bacterial cell replicates its DNA, forms a septum dividing the cell into two, and eventually splits into two daughter cells. This process is specific to prokaryotic cells such as bacteria and is different from mitosis and meiosis, which are processes specific to eukaryotic cells. Cytokinesis is the final step of cell division in both eukaryotes and prokaryotes, but it is not the primary mechanism of bacterial replication.
Question 2 of 9
The dynamic balance of the species in the normal microflora is known as
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: eubiosis. Eubiosis refers to a state of balance and harmony among the species in the normal microflora. This term signifies a healthy and stable microbial community. Dysbiosis (A) is the opposite, indicating an imbalance or disruption in the microflora. Eukaryota (B) refers to organisms with cells containing a nucleus, not specifically related to the balance of microflora. Dispersion (C) refers to the spreading or distribution of microorganisms, not specifically related to their balance. In summary, eubiosis best describes the dynamic balance of species in the normal microflora, making it the correct choice.
Question 3 of 9
Group II category diseases as established by the NIAID include:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: reemerging diseases. Group II category diseases by the NIAID are those that have reemerged or have the potential to reemerge. This classification helps prioritize research and resources. Choice A is incorrect because new foodborne pathogens fall under different categories. Choice B is incorrect as eradicated diseases are not part of the reemerging group. Choice C is incorrect because bioterrorism agents are classified separately. Therefore, the correct answer is D as it aligns with the purpose of Group II category diseases.
Question 4 of 9
A 40 year old man noticed a reddening and an edema of skin in the area of his neck that later developed into a small abscess. The incised focus is dense, yellowish-green. The pus contains white granules. Histological examination revealed drusen of a fungus, plasmatic and xanthome cells, macrophages. What type of mycosis is the most probable?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Sporotrichosis. Sporotrichosis is caused by the fungus Sporothrix schenckii, which commonly presents as a subcutaneous infection. In the given case, the presence of a small abscess with yellowish-green pus containing white granules is indicative of sporotrichosis. The histological examination showing drusen of a fungus, plasmatic and xanthome cells, and macrophages further supports the diagnosis of sporotrichosis. Choice A: Actinomycosis is a bacterial infection caused by Actinomyces species, not a fungal infection. Choice B: Aspergillosis is caused by Aspergillus species and typically presents as a pulmonary infection, not a subcutaneous abscess as described in the case. Choice C: Candidosis is caused by Candida species and usually presents as mucocutaneous infections, not a subcutaneous abscess with the
Question 5 of 9
A group of Ukrainian tourists returning from Samarqand was bringing with them gerbils. During examination in customs office ulcers were detected on the skin of the animals. What protozoa is the most likely to cause the disease in the animals, if mosquitoes are the carriers?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: 1. The presence of ulcers in animals suggests a parasitic infection. 2. Mosquitoes as carriers indicate a protozoan transmitted through insect bites. 3. Among the choices, Plasmodium falciparum causes malaria transmitted by mosquitoes. 4. Leishmania tropica major causes cutaneous leishmaniasis, not ulcers. 5. Balantidium coli causes intestinal infections, not skin ulcers. 6. Trypanosoma cruzi causes Chagas disease, not skin ulcers.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following food media can be used for cultivation of Streptococcus pneumoniae:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Blood agar. Streptococcus pneumoniae is a fastidious bacterium that requires enriched media for growth. Blood agar provides the necessary nutrients and growth factors for the cultivation of S. pneumoniae, such as blood proteins and hemin. MacConkey agar (B) is selective for gram-negative bacteria and would not support the growth of S. pneumoniae. Peptone water (C) is a liquid medium that lacks the necessary nutrients for the growth of S. pneumoniae. Choice D is incorrect as blood agar is a suitable medium for cultivating S. pneumoniae.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the following bacteria is known for causing the disease known as leprosy?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Mycobacterium leprae is the correct answer as it is the bacteria known to cause leprosy. 2. Clostridium perfringens is incorrect as it is associated with gas gangrene. 3. Streptococcus pneumoniae is incorrect as it is commonly linked to pneumonia and meningitis. 4. Neisseria gonorrhoeae is incorrect as it causes gonorrhea, a sexually transmitted infection. In summary, Mycobacterium leprae is the only bacteria among the choices specifically known to cause leprosy, making it the correct answer.
Question 8 of 9
The branch of pharmacology that addresses drug amounts at various sites in the body after drug administration is called:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: pharmacokinetics. Pharmacokinetics is the study of drug movement in the body, including absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion. It focuses on how the body processes a drug over time. Pharmacodynamics (A) is the study of the effects drugs have on the body. Pharmacotherapeutics (C) involves using drugs to treat diseases. Pharmacy (D) is the practice of preparing and dispensing medications. Pharmacokinetics specifically deals with drug concentrations at different body sites after administration, making it the most appropriate choice for this question.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the following is a preferred mode of transmission of HIV from a mother to a child
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because HIV can be transmitted from a mother to a child through multiple modes: during delivery through mixing of blood, during pregnancy through the placenta, and via breastmilk during lactation. Each mode presents a risk of transmission due to the presence of the virus in bodily fluids. Therefore, all of the above options are preferred modes of transmission for HIV from a mother to a child. Choices A, B, and C alone do not fully encompass all the possible routes of transmission, making them incorrect.