ATI RN
microbiology an introduction 12th edition test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Bacteria that use organic compounds as the source of both carbon and energy are referred to as:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: chemoheterotrophs. Chemoheterotrophs use organic compounds as both their carbon source and energy source. They obtain energy by breaking down organic molecules through cellular respiration. Photoautotrophs (A) use light energy to produce organic compounds, chemoautotrophs (B) use inorganic compounds for energy, and photoheterotrophs (C) use light energy but require organic compounds as a carbon source. Therefore, chemoheterotrophs best describe bacteria that obtain both carbon and energy from organic compounds.
Question 2 of 9
A child with foul-smelling diarrhea had trophozoites with two nuclei and flagella identified in stool microscopy. What is the causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Giardia lamblia. Giardia lamblia is a protozoan parasite that causes foul-smelling diarrhea with trophozoites having two nuclei and flagella in stool microscopy. The presence of flagella and two nuclei is characteristic of Giardia lamblia. Entamoeba histolytica (Choice B) causes amoebic dysentery with trophozoites containing ingested RBCs. Trichomonas vaginalis (Choice C) is a sexually transmitted protozoan causing vaginitis with a distinctive pear-shaped trophozoite. Balantidium coli (Choice D) is a ciliated protozoan causing diarrhea with trophozoites containing a single nucleus.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the following is likely to be the most frequently used portal of entry for pathogens?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Respiratory tract. The respiratory tract is likely the most frequently used portal of entry for pathogens because it is constantly exposed to the external environment and has a large surface area lined with mucous membranes that can trap and facilitate the entry of pathogens. Additionally, the respiratory tract serves as a direct pathway for pathogens to reach the bloodstream and other organs. Skin (choice A) is a physical barrier that can prevent pathogen entry, while the gastrointestinal tract (choice B) has acidic pH and enzymes that can kill many pathogens. Conjunctiva (choice D) is a less common portal of entry compared to the respiratory tract due to its smaller surface area and protective mechanisms such as tears.
Question 4 of 9
Infectious process is:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Infectious process involves interactions between macro and microorganisms. 2. It is not limited to manifested diseases or typical symptoms. 3. The process can occur without leading to a full-blown infectious disease. 4. Choice C correctly captures the dynamic relationship between different organisms. Summary: - A: Incorrect - Infectious process is not solely about clinically manifested diseases. - B: Incorrect - Not all infectious diseases have typical symptoms. - D: Incorrect - Ambulatory form is a specific type, not encompassing all infectious processes.
Question 5 of 9
The etiological agent of Q-fever is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Coxiella burnetii. Q-fever is caused by the bacterium Coxiella burnetii. It is not caused by viruses like Bunyaviridae or Filoviridae. Rickettsia conorii causes Mediterranean spotted fever, not Q-fever. Coxiella burnetii is the only bacterium among the choices known to be the etiological agent of Q-fever.
Question 6 of 9
For the structure of rubella virus is true that
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Rubella virus has icosahedral type of symmetry due to its spherical shape with 20 faces. This symmetry allows for efficient packaging of genetic material and structural stability. Choice B is incorrect as rubella virus is an ssRNA virus, not ssDNA. Choice C is incorrect as rubella virus does have an envelope derived from the host cell membrane. Choice D is incorrect as rubella virus does have glycoprotein spikes on its surface that aid in host cell recognition and entry.
Question 7 of 9
Which one is true about sexually transmitted infections?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because a soft chancre is a type of sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacterium Haemophilus ducreyi. It presents as a painless ulcer on the genitals. The other choices are incorrect. B is incorrect because STIs can enter the body through various routes, not only the urogenital tract mucosa. C is incorrect because immunity to syphilis is not lifelong; reinfection is possible. D is incorrect because STIs can occur in any country regardless of social status or hygiene levels.
Question 8 of 9
The complex of all biological processes/mechanisms responsible for the state of steady internal, physical and chemical conditions in the living systems and defense against all foreign agents is knows as:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: homeostasis. Homeostasis refers to the process by which living organisms maintain a stable internal environment despite external changes. It involves various biological processes and mechanisms that regulate factors such as temperature, pH, and nutrient levels within narrow limits. This is crucial for the proper functioning of cells, tissues, and organs. Now, let's analyze the other choices: A: Infection - Infection refers to the invasion and multiplication of harmful microorganisms in the body, leading to illnesses. It is not the correct answer as it does not encompass the overall maintenance of internal conditions. C: Immunity - Immunity is the body's ability to resist and fight off infections. While immunity is related to defense against foreign agents, it does not fully capture the concept of maintaining internal stability. D: Commensalism - Commensalism is a type of symbiotic relationship between different species where one benefits without harming the other. It is not related to the overall regulation of
Question 9 of 9
A 32-year-old patient undergoing dental examination was found to have some rash-like lesions resembling secondary syphilis in the oral cavity. The patient was referred for the serological study with the purpose of diagnosis confirmation. In order to detect antibodies in the serum, living Treponema were used as diagnosticum. What serological test was performed?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Passive hemagglutination. In this test, red blood cells coated with Treponema antigens agglutinate in the presence of patient's serum antibodies. This indicates the presence of antibodies against Treponema, confirming the diagnosis. A: Immobilization test uses live Treponema to detect specific antibodies, but it is not commonly used for syphilis diagnosis. C: Precipitation test is not commonly used for syphilis diagnosis. D: Complement binding test is not specific for syphilis and is used more for autoimmune diseases. Therefore, passive hemagglutination is the most appropriate serological test in this case due to its specificity and relevance to the presentation of the patient.