Bacteria that have a single polar flagellum at one end are referred to as:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Monotrichous means having a single flagellum at one end. 2. The term "polar" indicates that the flagellum is located at one end of the bacterium. 3. Therefore, bacteria with a single polar flagellum are referred to as monotrichous. 4. Choice A is a typo, as it is the same as the correct answer B. Summary: - Choice A is a typo, as it duplicates the correct answer. - Choice C, amphitrichous, refers to bacteria with a flagellum at each end. - Choice D, peritrichous, describes bacteria with flagella distributed over the entire surface.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Subcutaneous mycoses are fungal infections that affect the skin, subcutaneous tissues, and bones. The correct answer is A: tropics, as these infections are more commonly found in warm and humid regions. Fungi that cause subcutaneous mycoses thrive in tropical climates due to the favorable conditions for their growth and transmission. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because deserts (B) have dry conditions not conducive to fungal growth, forests of the Northern Hemisphere (C) have varying climates that may not support the specific fungi causing subcutaneous mycoses, and the Rocky Mountains (D) are not typically associated with the high humidity required for these infections.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D (All of the above) because different bacteria can cause pneumonia. Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia. Mycobacterium tuberculosis causes tuberculosis, which can lead to pneumonia. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a common cause of hospital-acquired pneumonia. Therefore, all three bacteria can be responsible for causing pneumonia in different contexts. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each bacterium individually can cause pneumonia, so selecting only one option would not cover the full spectrum of bacterial causes of pneumonia.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tetanus. Tetanus is caused by the bacterium Clostridium tetani, which produces a toxin affecting the nervous system. Symptoms such as malaise, irritability, muscular twitching, and high body temperature are characteristic of tetanus due to muscle spasms and rigidity. The 15-day incubation period after trauma aligns with the typical onset of tetanus symptoms. Incorrect choices: B: Anaerobic gas gangrene - This condition usually presents with localized tissue necrosis and gas bubbles in the affected area, not systemic symptoms like malaise and headache. C: Erysipelas - This is a bacterial skin infection presenting with red, swollen patches, not the neurological symptoms seen in tetanus. D: Acute thrombophlebitis - This is a blood clot in a vein causing pain and swelling, not associated with the systemic symptoms and muscle twitching seen in tetanus.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the above. Clostridium tetani, Staphylococcus aureus, and Escherichia coli are all capable of producing exotoxins. Exotoxins are proteins released by bacteria that can cause damage to the host. Clostridium tetani produces tetanospasmin, causing tetanus. Staphylococcus aureus produces toxins like enterotoxin and toxic shock syndrome toxin-1. Escherichia coli can produce Shiga toxin and heat-labile toxin. Therefore, all three bacteria listed can produce exotoxins, making choice D the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not encompass all the bacteria capable of producing exotoxins.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Yersinia pestis. Y. pestis is the causative agent of plague, characterized by fever, enlarged lymph nodes, and bacteremia. The bipolar-staining, Gram-negative rods seen on Gram stain are typical of Y. pestis. Incorrect choices: B: Francisella tularensis causes tularemia, not plague. C: Brucella abortus causes brucellosis, not plague. D: Clostridium botulinum causes botulism, not plague. In summary, the key features of the patient's presentation and the Gram stain findings align with Yersinia pestis as the correct causative agent of plague.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C (Both A and B) because both Clostridium botulinum and Bacillus anthracis are capable of producing spores. Spores are highly resistant structures that allow bacteria to survive harsh environmental conditions. Clostridium botulinum and Bacillus anthracis produce spores as a survival mechanism when conditions become unfavorable. Choice A (Clostridium botulinum) is incorrect because it only represents one of the bacteria capable of producing spores. Choice B (Bacillus anthracis) is also incorrect as it alone does not encompass all bacteria capable of producing spores. Choice D (None of the above) is incorrect as both bacteria mentioned can produce spores.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gin's stain method. Gin's stain method is specifically used to detect capsules of bacteria. This method involves staining the bacteria with crystal violet and copper sulfate, which highlights the capsules as a clear halo around the stained bacterial cells. Ziehl-Neelsen's stain is used for acid-fast bacteria like Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Neisser's stain is for detecting Neisseria species, and Gram's stain is for differentiating bacteria based on their cell wall composition (Gram-positive vs. Gram-negative). Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect for this scenario.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Large, oval protozoa with a single nucleus and four flagella indicate Giardia lamblia. Step 2: Giardia lamblia is a flagellated protozoan causing diarrhea. Step 3: It has a distinct appearance under microscopy. Step 4: Entamoeba histolytica causes dysentery with no flagella. Step 5: Balantidium coli is a ciliated protozoan with a larger size. Step 6: Trichomonas vaginalis lacks a cyst stage and causes genitourinary infections.