ATI RN
mcgraw hill microbiology test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Bacteria that grow in the absence of oxygen are called:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Obligate anaerobes. These bacteria cannot survive in the presence of oxygen as they lack the necessary enzymes to detoxify reactive oxygen species. Obligate aerobes (A) require oxygen, facultative anaerobes (B) can grow with or without oxygen, and aerotolerant anaerobes (D) can survive in the presence of oxygen but do not utilize it for growth.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the following is a major characteristic of Gram-negative bacteria?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Outer membrane with lipopolysaccharides. Gram-negative bacteria have an outer membrane that contains lipopolysaccharides, which play a role in pathogenicity and resistance to certain antibiotics. This outer membrane is a distinguishing feature of Gram-negative bacteria, as opposed to Gram-positive bacteria that have a thick peptidoglycan layer. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because Gram-negative bacteria have a thin peptidoglycan layer, do have a cell wall (although it is different from Gram-positive bacteria), and do not contain teichoic acids.
Question 3 of 9
Infections of Legionella pneumophila are treated with:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Macrolides or fluoroquinolones. Legionella pneumophila is a bacterium that causes Legionnaires' disease, a severe form of pneumonia. Macrolides (like azithromycin) and fluoroquinolones (like levofloxacin) are the recommended first-line treatments due to their ability to penetrate into lung tissues where Legionella infects. Penicillins and cephalosporins (choice A) are not effective against Legionella as it is intracellular and resistant to these antibiotics. Ethambutol and isoniazid (choice B) are used to treat tuberculosis, not Legionella infections. Second and third generation cephalosporins (choice D) are also not effective against Legionella. Therefore, the best choice for treating Legionella pneumophila infections is macrolides or fluoroquinolones.
Question 4 of 9
Some of the basic requirements for the antibacterial chemotherapeutics are:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because antibacterial chemotherapeutics need to be maximally toxic to microorganisms, not lead to allergic reactions, be stable, and have a wide spectrum of activity to effectively treat bacterial infections. A is incorrect because maximum toxicity to bacteria can lead to harmful side effects in the body. B is incorrect because rapid disintegration and insolubility in water would hinder the drug's effectiveness. D is incorrect because the basic requirements for antibacterial chemotherapeutics are outlined in option C.
Question 5 of 9
Bacterial endotoxins are:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: components of the gram-negative cell wall. Bacterial endotoxins are lipopolysaccharides found in the outer membrane of gram-negative bacteria. They are released upon bacterial cell lysis and can cause severe immune responses. A: Proteins in the cell wall - This is incorrect because endotoxins are not proteins but rather lipopolysaccharides. B: Secreted into the environment - Endotoxins are not actively secreted but are released upon cell death or lysis. C: Components of the gram-positive cell wall - Gram-positive bacteria do not have an outer membrane with lipopolysaccharides, so endotoxins are not found in the gram-positive cell wall.
Question 6 of 9
4 days after a patient received a gunshot wound of the middle third of the thigh soft tissues his condition suddenly began deteriorating. There are complaints of bursting pain in the wound; pain increases during the last 12 hours. Edema of skin and hypodermic tissue quickly grows. Body temperature is 38,2oC, heart rate is 102/min. The wound edges gape, are dull in color; the muscles, viable as of day before, now protrude into the wound, look boiled, are dull in color, have dirty-grey coating and fall apart when being held with forceps. What infection has developed in the wound?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Anaerobic infection. The sudden deterioration, bursting pain, edema, foul appearance of wound, and presence of gas are indicative of gas gangrene caused by anaerobic bacteria like Clostridium perfringens. These bacteria thrive in low oxygen environments, such as deep wound tissues. The symptoms align with the classic presentation of gas gangrene, necessitating immediate surgical intervention. Choice B: Aerobic gram-negative, is incorrect because anaerobic bacteria, not aerobic gram-negative bacteria, are responsible for gas gangrene. Choice C: Putrid, is incorrect as it is a general term referring to foul-smelling decay and does not specify the type of infection. Choice D: Aerobic gram-positive, is incorrect as gas gangrene is typically caused by anaerobic bacteria, not aerobic gram-positive bacteria.
Question 7 of 9
A patient has wound abscess. Bacteriological examination of the wound content revealed a gram- negative bacillus which forms semi-transparent mucous colonies of blue-green color with a pearlescent appearance on the beef-extract agar. Culture has a specific odor of violets or jasmine. What type of pathogen was isolated from the patient's wound?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Gram-negative bacillus indicates P. aeruginosa, known for causing wound infections. Step 2: Semi-transparent mucous colonies of blue-green color with a pearlescent appearance are characteristic of P. aeruginosa. Step 3: Specific odor of violets or jasmine is a unique feature of P. aeruginosa. Therefore, the correct answer is A: P. aeruginosa. Summary: - B: P. vulgaris typically forms yellow colonies and doesn't have the characteristic odor. - C: S. aureus forms creamy white colonies, not blue-green, and has a distinct odor. - D: S. pyogenes forms grayish-white colonies and doesn't have the unique characteristics described.
Question 8 of 9
Herpes simplex infections on lips and in the mouth are most commonly caused by:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: HSV-1. Herpes simplex infections on lips and in the mouth are most commonly caused by HSV-1 due to its preference for infecting oral mucosa. HSV-2 typically causes genital herpes. HSV-6 and HSV-7 are less common and not typically associated with oral infections. Therefore, based on the typical presentation and epidemiology of herpes simplex infections, HSV-1 is the most likely cause in this scenario.
Question 9 of 9
Parents with ill child came to the infectionist. They worked in one of the Asian countries for a long time. Child has eathy colored skin, loss of appetite, laxity, enlarged liver, spleen, peripheral glands. What protozoan illness can this child have?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Visceral leishmaniasis. This disease is caused by the protozoan parasite Leishmania, which is transmitted by sandfly bites. The symptoms described in the question, such as enlarged liver and spleen, peripheral gland enlargement, and eathy colored skin, are characteristic of visceral leishmaniasis. Amebiasis (choice A) typically presents with gastrointestinal symptoms, Balantidiasis (choice B) is caused by a different parasite and presents with dysentery, and Lambliasis (choice D) is caused by Giardia lamblia and presents with diarrhea.