Bacteria that can cause tuberculosis in humans are:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because both Mycobacterium bovis and Mycobacterium tuberculosis are bacteria that can cause tuberculosis in humans. Mycobacterium bovis primarily infects animals but can be transmitted to humans, while Mycobacterium tuberculosis is the main causative agent of tuberculosis in humans. Therefore, both choices A and B are correct. Choice D is incorrect because we know that Mycobacterium bovis and Mycobacterium tuberculosis are causative agents of tuberculosis in humans.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: decimal reduction time. This term represents the time required at a specific temperature to kill 90% of a bacterial population. It is a key parameter in microbiology to determine the effectiveness of a given heat treatment. Generation time (A) refers to the time it takes for a population to double in size. Thermal death time (B) is the shortest time needed to kill all organisms at a specific temperature. Sterilization time (C) is a general term and does not specifically refer to the time required to kill 90% of the population.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clostridium perfringens. Clostridium perfringens is a Gram-positive, spore-forming bacterium that is anaerobic and produces gas. It is commonly associated with wound infections and gas gangrene. Clostridium tetani causes tetanus, not wound infections. Clostridium botulinum causes botulism, not typically associated with wound infections. Bacillus anthracis causes anthrax, which does not typically produce gas in wound infections.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Oxacillin. In AST for Gram-positive bacteria, the antibiotic panel typically includes oxacillin to determine if the bacterium is susceptible or resistant to beta-lactam antibiotics. Oxacillin is commonly used to test for methicillin resistance in Staphylococcus aureus. Tetracycline (B), Tobramycin (C), and Amikacin (D) are not typically included in the Gram-positive antibiotic panel. Tetracycline is more commonly used for Gram-negative bacteria, while Tobramycin and Amikacin are aminoglycosides usually tested in Gram-negative bacterial infections. Therefore, they are not appropriate choices for the Gram-positive antibiotic panel.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bacterial ribosomes synthesize proteins. Ribosomes are cellular organelles responsible for protein synthesis by translating mRNA into amino acids. They are essential for the production of proteins needed for cell function. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because ribosomes do not synthesize DNA, degrade toxic substances, or assist in cell division. DNA synthesis is carried out by DNA polymerase, degradation of toxic substances is typically done by enzymes, and cell division is primarily regulated by the cell cycle machinery.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Gram-negative coccobacillus. Francisella tularensis is a Gram-negative coccobacillus because it has a unique shape that is between a coccus (spherical) and a bacillus (rod-shaped) and it stains pink/red in the Gram staining process. It is important to note that it is not a coccus (choice B) or a Gram-positive bacterium (choice A). Choice C is too general and does not specify the coccobacillus shape of F. tularensis. So, the correct answer is D due to its specific characteristics as a Gram-negative coccobacillus.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The most probable diagnosis is Dermatotropic leishmaniasis. The roundish ulcers, lymph node enlargement, and presence of unicellular aflagellar organisms in discharge are characteristic of this parasitic infection transmitted by sandfly bites. Leishmania parasites cause skin lesions and lymphadenopathy. Toxoplasmosis (B) presents with flu-like symptoms, not ulcers. Scabies (C) causes intense itching and burrows, not ulcers. Trypanosomiasis (D) presents with fever, not ulcers. In this case, the symptoms align closely with Dermatotropic leishmaniasis, making it the most likely diagnosis.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Malaria. Fever developing 2 weeks post-blood transfusion is characteristic of malaria due to the incubation period of the parasite. Trypanosomiasis presents earlier, amebiasis usually causes GI symptoms, and toxoplasmosis typically manifests with flu-like symptoms. Malaria is the most likely cause based on the timing and clinical presentation.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: crateriform. In a gelatin stab, a saucer-shaped liquefaction indicates a depression or crater-like shape. This term accurately describes the appearance of the liquefaction. A: napiform means turnip-shaped, which is not relevant to the shape in a gelatin stab. B: saccate means pouch-like, which does not match the saucer-shaped description. D: stratiform refers to something in layers, which is not applicable to the shape of the liquefaction. Therefore, C is the most appropriate term to describe the saucer-shaped liquefaction in a gelatin stab.