Atopic dermatitis can be described as: Select all that apply.

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NCLEX Skin Integrity Questions Questions

Question 1 of 5

Atopic dermatitis can be described as: Select all that apply.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Atopic dermatitis is characterized by oozing due to the disrupted skin barrier. Vesicle formation is more characteristic of allergic contact dermatitis. Round, erythematous papules that enlarge and coalesce are seen in nummular eczema. Raised wheals with associated itching are typical of urticaria. Oozing is specific to atopic dermatitis due to impaired skin barrier function.

Question 2 of 5

Which one of the following skin disorders seen in elderly persons is considered a premalignant lesion?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Actinic keratosis. Actinic keratosis is considered a premalignant lesion because it is caused by prolonged sun exposure and can progress to squamous cell carcinoma if left untreated. It appears as rough, scaly patches on the skin and is commonly seen in elderly individuals with a history of sun damage. Cherry angiomas (A), solar lentigines (C), and telangiectases (D) are not considered premalignant lesions. Cherry angiomas are benign skin growths, solar lentigines are age spots caused by sun exposure, and telangiectases are dilated blood vessels.

Question 3 of 5

The patient's sacral pressure injury is open with exposed bone. Which pressure injury stage will be recorded in the patient's chart?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: A sacral injury with exposed bone is 'Stage 4' , per Potter's *Essentials* and NPUAP. Full-thickness loss e.g., bone visible 2 cm deep may include tunneling, unlike 'Stage 1' , nonblanchable redness e.g., intact skin. 'Stage 2' is partial-thickness e.g., shallow ulcer, no bone. 'Stage 3' is full-thickness e.g., fat visible, not bone. A nurse charting e.g., Bone at sacrum' notes Stage 4's severity (e.g., 20% of sacral ulcers), needing debridement. Potter defines Stage 4 as deepest damage, distinct from Stage 3's limit at subcutaneous fat, a physiological integrity key. is the correct, advanced stage.

Question 4 of 5

The patient's incision is fading to a pale pink following surgery 2 months previously. Which stage of the healing describes the current status of the patient's wound?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: A pale pink incision 2 months post-surgery is in 'remodeling phase' , per Potter's. Collagen reorganizes e.g., scar strengthens 80% by 6 weeks unlike 'hemostasis' , initial bleeding stop e.g., minutes post-op. 'Proliferative' builds tissue e.g., days 3-21, red granulation. 'Inflammation' cleans e.g., first 3 days, swelling. A nurse assesses e.g., Faint scar' remodeling's 3-month span, per healing science, a physiological marker. Potter defines this as scar maturation, distinct from proliferative's growth, making the correct, late stage.

Question 5 of 5

The patient just sustained a deep laceration that is bleeding profusely. Which stage of healing describes the current state of the patient's wound?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: A fresh, bleeding laceration is in 'hemostasis phase' , per Potter's. Clotting e.g., platelets seal in 5 minutes stops blood e.g., 100 mL loss unlike 'proliferative' , tissue growth e.g., day 3. 'Inflammation' cleans e.g., next 2 days. 'Remodeling' scars e.g., months later. A nurse sees e.g., Clot forming' hemostasis's 100% start, per healing science, a physiological must. Potter marks this as bleeding control, making the correct, immediate stage.

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