ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
At which stage of Lewin ' s planned change indicates the nurse identifying, planning, and implementing appropriate strategies ensuring that driving forces exceed restraining forces?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: unfreezing. Unfreezing is the initial stage in Lewin's planned change model where individuals become open to change by recognizing the need for it. During this stage, the nurse identifies the need for change, plans strategies to implement it, and works on overcoming resistance by ensuring that the driving forces (reasons for change) outweigh the restraining forces (barriers to change). Refreezing (A) is the final stage where the changes are reinforced and integrated into the organization. Movement (B) is the stage where actual change occurs, and in activism (D) is not a recognized stage in Lewin's model.
Question 2 of 9
You should check the patient for suspect disturbed thought processes related to depressed metabolism and altered cardiovascular and respiratory status. What is the rationale for orienting the patient to time, place, date, and events?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Provides reality orientation to patient. Orienting the patient to time, place, date, and events helps them stay connected to reality and improves their awareness of their surroundings. This is crucial in assessing their cognitive functioning and ensuring they are grounded in the present moment. By providing reality orientation, healthcare providers can better understand the patient's current mental state and address any potential confusion or disorientation. This approach aids in establishing a therapeutic environment and enhances the patient's overall well-being. Choices A, C, and D do not capture the essence of reality orientation and its significance in maintaining the patient's mental clarity and connection to the present moment.
Question 3 of 9
For the past 6 months, several nurses are resigning. Some have verbalized in the exit interview that there are not happy anymore. Which of the following descriptions manifest BEST, a nurse who has job satisfaction?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because an empowered nurse feels in control and valued, leading to job satisfaction. Enthusiasm shows motivation and engagement with their work. Being ethical indicates a commitment to moral principles, contributing to a sense of fulfillment. Choice A is incorrect as competitiveness and self-centeredness do not necessarily equate to job satisfaction. Euphoria may not be a sustainable indicator of satisfaction. Choice C is incorrect because being a loner and egoistic are not traits associated with job satisfaction. Reactivity may suggest a lack of control or frustration. Choice D is incorrect as being outgoing and competitive might not directly translate to job satisfaction. Sensitivity alone does not guarantee satisfaction in the workplace.
Question 4 of 9
A patient presents with redness, pain, and photophobia in the left eye. Slit-lamp examination reveals ciliary injection, corneal edema, and a mid-dilated pupil with fixed reaction to light. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Anterior uveitis. This condition presents with redness, pain, and photophobia due to inflammation of the uveal tract. Ciliary injection, corneal edema, and mid-dilated pupil with fixed reaction to light are classic signs of anterior uveitis. The other choices can be ruled out based on specific findings: B: Acute angle-closure glaucoma would present with a high intraocular pressure, not fixed dilated pupil. C: Endophthalmitis typically presents with severe pain, hypopyon, and vitreous inflammation. D: Corneal abrasion would not cause ciliary injection or fixed dilated pupil.
Question 5 of 9
A patient in the ICU develops acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) characterized by worsening dyspnea and increased sputum production. What intervention should the healthcare team prioritize to manage the patient's exacerbation?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Initiate non-invasive positive pressure ventilation (NIPPV) for respiratory support. In acute exacerbations of COPD, NIPPV helps improve ventilation and oxygenation, reducing the work of breathing and preventing the need for intubation. This intervention is a priority as it can rapidly stabilize the patient's respiratory status. A: Administering bronchodilator medications is important in COPD management, but in severe exacerbations, NIPPV takes precedence. C: Arterial blood gas analysis is important for assessing oxygenation and ventilation status, but it does not directly address the acute respiratory distress. D: Chest physiotherapy can help with airway clearance in COPD, but in acute exacerbations, respiratory support with NIPPV is more urgent.
Question 6 of 9
A patient with chronic bronchitis presents with chronic cough, sputum production, and exertional dyspnea. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate for managing the patient's symptoms and improving quality of life?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Bronchodilator therapy. Bronchodilators help to relax and open up the airways, which can improve airflow and reduce symptoms such as cough, sputum production, and dyspnea in patients with chronic bronchitis. This intervention can help manage the patient's symptoms and improve their quality of life by making it easier for them to breathe. A: Smoking cessation counseling is important for overall management of chronic bronchitis, but it does not directly address the patient's current symptoms. B: Oral antibiotic therapy may be indicated if there is evidence of a bacterial infection, but it is not the first-line treatment for managing chronic bronchitis symptoms. C: Home oxygen therapy may be necessary for patients with severe hypoxemia, but it is not typically the first intervention for managing symptoms of chronic bronchitis without evidence of significant oxygen desaturation.
Question 7 of 9
There is an outbreak of measles in some areas of the community where Nurse Rona is assigned. Which of the following-steps of an outbreak investigation should Nurse Rona and her team begin ?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Identify and count cases. In the initial stages of an outbreak investigation, it is crucial to identify and count cases to understand the scope and magnitude of the outbreak. By counting cases, Nurse Rona and her team can track the spread of the disease, identify common characteristics among those affected, and determine the extent of the outbreak. This step helps in guiding further investigation and control measures. Summary of other choices: B: Define and identify cases - While defining cases is important, it is not the initial step in outbreak investigation. C: Verify diagnosis - Verifying diagnosis is important but comes after identifying and counting cases. D: Prepare for field work - Field work is important in outbreak investigations, but it typically comes after the initial step of identifying and counting cases.
Question 8 of 9
To assist them enhance their performance at work, the nurse manager should review regularly pertaining to the staff's
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Job description is crucial for clarifying roles and responsibilities, ensuring staff understand their duties. Step 2: Regular review of job descriptions helps align staff performance with organizational goals and expectations. Step 3: It allows for identifying areas of improvement and providing necessary support and resources. Step 4: Academic performance in college, family dynamics, and number of incident reports are not directly related to work performance. Summary: Regularly reviewing staff job descriptions is essential for enhancing performance by clarifying roles, aligning expectations, and identifying areas for improvement. Other choices lack direct relevance to work performance.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the following structures is responsible for the production of digestive enzymes and bicarbonate-rich pancreatic juice?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Pancreas. The pancreas is responsible for producing digestive enzymes and bicarbonate-rich pancreatic juice. It secretes enzymes like amylase, lipase, and protease to break down carbohydrates, fats, and proteins in the small intestine. The bicarbonate-rich juice helps neutralize stomach acid. The liver (A) produces bile stored in the gallbladder (B), which aids in fat digestion. The spleen (D) is involved in immune function and blood filtration, not digestive enzyme production.