At which stage of Lewin ' s planned change indicates the nurse identifying, planning, and implementing appropriate strategies ensuring that driving forces exceed restraining forces?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: unfreezing. Unfreezing is the initial stage in Lewin's planned change model where individuals become open to change by recognizing the need for it. During this stage, the nurse identifies the need for change, plans strategies to implement it, and works on overcoming resistance by ensuring that the driving forces (reasons for change) outweigh the restraining forces (barriers to change). Refreezing (A) is the final stage where the changes are reinforced and integrated into the organization. Movement (B) is the stage where actual change occurs, and in activism (D) is not a recognized stage in Lewin's model.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: A person's compliance with diabetes management can be influenced by economic status, as financial concerns can impact access to medications, healthy food, and healthcare. This can affect treatment adherence and overall health outcomes. Choice A is correct because addressing economic factors is important in promoting compliance. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly address the relationship between economic status and compliance with diabetes management.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because zero absenteeism and tardiness of pupils indicate that the school nursing programs are effectively promoting student health and well-being. This outcome shows that students are healthy, engaged, and present in school, which is a key goal of school nursing initiatives. Choice B is incorrect as teachers being observers does not directly measure the effectiveness of the nursing programs. Choice C is incorrect as limited information hinders the success and impact of school health initiatives. Choice D is incorrect as constant visits and phone calls from parents may not necessarily reflect the success of the nursing programs.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Nasal polyps. Nasal polyps are benign growths that form in the nasal cavity and sinuses, leading to symptoms such as chronic nasal congestion, hyposmia, and anosmia. The presence of polypoid masses seen on nasal endoscopy is characteristic of nasal polyps. Rationale: 1. Chronic nasal congestion, hyposmia, and anosmia are common symptoms of nasal polyps. 2. Nasal endoscopy revealing polypoid masses confirms the presence of nasal polyps. 3. Allergic rhinitis may cause nasal congestion but does not typically present with polypoid masses. 4. Chronic sinusitis can cause nasal congestion but is usually associated with inflammation of the sinuses, not just polypoid masses. 5. A deviated nasal septum can lead to nasal congestion but does not typically cause polypoid masses obstructing the nasal cavity and sinuses.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lie on the affected area. This position would hinder drainage and increase pressure on the affected area. A: Tilt head to the side if sitting up, is correct as it promotes drainage. C: Putting pillows behind the head can also aid drainage. D: Lying on the non-affected ear can help reduce pressure on the affected side.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate initial management for the patient described is hemodialysis. Hemodialysis is essential for managing chronic kidney disease with severe symptoms and electrolyte imbalances like hyperkalemia and metabolic acidosis. Hemodialysis helps to remove urea and creatinine from the blood, correct electrolyte abnormalities, and improve symptoms such as fatigue, dyspnea, and peripheral edema. Initiation of ACE inhibitor therapy (Choice A) is contraindicated in severe kidney disease due to the risk of worsening renal function. Intravenous administration of calcium gluconate (Choice C) is used for acute hyperkalemia with cardiac toxicity, not for initial management. Sodium bicarbonate administration (Choice D) may help correct metabolic acidosis, but it does not address the underlying cause or the need for urgent renal replacement therapy.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In a postpartum client who presents with severe abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting, it is crucial to assess for signs of peritonitis or surgical abdomen. These signs may include rebound tenderness, guarding, rigidity, and fever. Peritonitis is a serious condition that may require immediate surgical intervention. Administering antiemetic medication, encouraging clear fluids, or providing a heating pad may not address the underlying cause of the symptoms and delay appropriate treatment. Assessing for signs of peritonitis or surgical abdomen is crucial for prompt identification and management of the client's condition.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Scabies. This presentation is classic for scabies infestation caused by the Sarcoptes scabiei mite. The intensely pruritic linear burrows are pathognomonic. Close contact with an individual with scabies increases the likelihood of transmission. The other choices, B: Pediculosis, C: Tinea corporis, and D: Contact dermatitis, do not typically present with linear burrows on the hands and wrists. Pediculosis presents with lice infestation, Tinea corporis with circular lesions, and contact dermatitis with erythema and edema.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Acute glomerulonephritis. Glomerulonephritis is characterized by inflammation of the glomeruli in the kidneys, leading to symptoms like hematuria (blood in urine), proteinuria (excess protein in urine), and hypertension (high blood pressure). Acute tubular necrosis (A) involves damage to the renal tubules, not the glomeruli. Chronic kidney disease (C) refers to long-term kidney damage and may not always present with the classic symptoms mentioned. Nephrotic syndrome (D) involves excessive protein loss in urine but may not always involve inflammation of the glomeruli.