At what point in the nurse–patient relationship should a nurse plan to first address termination?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, during the orientation phase. This is the initial phase where the nurse establishes rapport, gathers information, and sets the tone for the relationship. Planning for termination during orientation allows for a smooth transition and helps manage expectations. Addressing termination at the end of the working phase (choice B) may be abrupt and disrupt the therapeutic process. Near the beginning of the termination phase (choice C) is too late as it doesn't allow sufficient time for the patient to process and prepare for closure. Waiting for the patient to bring up termination (choice D) may lead to uncertainty and anxiety for the patient.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because complex somatic symptom disorder typically begins in adolescence. This is important for nursing students to understand as it helps in recognizing the disorder early. Choice A is incorrect as the disorder is more commonly diagnosed in women. Choice C is incorrect because complex somatic symptom disorder is not necessarily associated with substance abuse. Choice D is incorrect as individuals of various educational backgrounds can develop this disorder. Understanding the onset of symptoms in adolescence is crucial for early intervention and appropriate management.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because it reflects self-actualization by showing an appreciation for simple pleasures and being in touch with nature, indicating a sense of fulfillment and inner peace. Choice A focuses on external factors, choice B relies on a plan for validation, and choice C emphasizes success through hard work, all of which are not necessarily indicative of self-actualization.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Compassion. Compassion is the emotion associated with being moved by another's suffering and wanting to help. It involves recognizing and empathizing with someone else's pain and feeling motivated to alleviate that suffering. Relief (A) is the feeling of release from stress or anxiety, not necessarily related to helping others. Hope (B) is the feeling of optimism and expectation for a positive outcome, not specifically related to being moved by another's suffering. Love (D) is a complex emotion involving deep affection and attachment, but it may not always lead to the desire to help alleviate someone else's suffering, unlike compassion.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Atheism. Atheism is the belief that there is no existence of any gods or deities. In this scenario, the patient explicitly states that "God does not exist for me," indicating a lack of belief in a higher power. Animism (A) is the belief that objects, places, and creatures possess a distinct spiritual essence. Agnosticism (B) is the belief that the existence of a higher power is unknown or unknowable. Polytheism (D) is the belief in multiple gods or deities, which is not reflected in the patient's statement.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dependent personality disorder (DPD). This disorder is characterized by a pervasive and excessive need to be taken care of by others, leading to submissive and clinging behavior. Individuals with DPD have difficulty making everyday decisions without reassurance from others. Rationale: 1. Dependent personality disorder aligns with the description of needing excessive care and being submissive. 2. Histrionic personality disorder is characterized by attention-seeking behavior, not a need for dependency. 3. Narcissistic personality disorder involves a grandiose sense of self-importance, not a need for dependency. 4. Avoidant personality disorder is marked by social inhibition and feelings of inadequacy, not a need for excessive care from others. In summary, the key characteristic of dependency and excessive need for care points to dependent personality disorder as the correct answer.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because ineffective coping is characterized by difficulty managing day-to-day stress. This can manifest as increased anxiety, irritability, or withdrawal. The other choices are incorrect because: A indicates the client is actively coping; B suggests motivation for behavioral change; and D implies symptoms of depression, not necessarily ineffective coping.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Psychostimulant. Methylphenidate is a central nervous system stimulant commonly used to treat ADHD. It works by increasing the levels of neurotransmitters like dopamine and norepinephrine in the brain, which helps improve focus and attention in individuals with ADHD. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (A) primarily target serotonin levels and are not used to treat ADHD. Noradrenergic reuptake inhibitors (C) target norepinephrine levels but are not the primary mechanism of action for methylphenidate. Alpha agonists (D) work on a different pathway and are not the correct classification for methylphenidate.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because the patient's action can be explained by the concept of interpreting the UAP's behavior as potentially harmful. In this scenario, the patient was asleep and suddenly awakened by the UAP quietly entering the room and touching the bed. The patient's instinctive response of hitting the UAP in the face can be seen as a defensive reaction triggered by perceiving a potential threat or harm from the UAP's unexpected actions. This aligns with the idea that older adults in a vulnerable state may react aggressively when feeling threatened or unsafe. Choice A is incorrect because it generalizes behavior without considering the specific context of the situation. Choice B is incorrect as it does not directly address the patient's perception of harm from the UAP's actions. Choice C is incorrect as there is no evidence provided in the scenario to support the idea that the patient learned violent behavior from other patients.