ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Made Easy 4.0 Infection Questions
Question 1 of 5
At what point does atropine hit its peak for IM injections?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Atropine given via intramuscular (IM) injection typically reaches its peak effects within 15 to 50 minutes after administration. The onset of action is relatively rapid, with faster absorption and distribution compared to oral administration. The effects of atropine can be seen within minutes, reaching peak concentration within the specified time frame. This rapid onset is important clinically when atropine is used to treat conditions such as bradycardia or nerve agent poisoning where a quick response is needed.
Question 2 of 5
A 59-year-old man with a long history of cardiac arrhythmia is maintained on procainamide. He presents to his primary care physician complaining of malaise, fevers, and nausea. Physical examination reveals a bilateral malar rash with erythema. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Procainamide can induce a lupus-like syndrome . Symptoms (malaise, fever, nausea) and malar rash mimic SLE, a known side effect due to drug-induced autoantibodies. Contact dermatitis lacks systemic features. Sun reaction or discoid lupus don't fit the drug link. Collagen disease (E) is vague. This reversible syndrome resolves with discontinuation, distinguishing it from primary lupus.
Question 3 of 5
While caring for a patient with cirrhosis or hepatitis, the nurse knows that abnormalities in which phase of pharmacokinetics may occur?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Cirrhosis and hepatitis impair liver function, which directly affects the metabolism of drugs. The liver is responsible for metabolizing many medications through processes such as oxidation, reduction, and hydrolysis. When liver function is compromised, drug metabolism may be slowed, leading to increased drug levels and a higher risk of toxicity. While absorption, distribution, and excretion can also be affected by liver disease, metabolism is the most significantly impacted phase. Therefore, nurses must carefully monitor drug dosages and consider alternative medications for patients with liver dysfunction.
Question 4 of 5
Which statement is accurate regarding pharmacotherapy in the older adult?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Aging reduces liver/renal clearance, raising plasma levels (e.g., digoxin), heightening response and toxicity risk, per pharmacokinetics. Body water drops, concentrating drugs, not diluting. Doses decrease, not increase-metabolism slows. Absorption may slow, but pH rises, not falls. Plasma increase drives effects, key in elders.
Question 5 of 5
All are true about penicillins EXCEPT:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Penicillins cross the blood-brain barrier mainly when meninges are inflamed (e.g., meningitis), a true statement due to increased permeability. They do require dose adjustment in renal failure, as they're renally excreted, making the lack of adjustment false and the exception. They inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis by blocking peptidoglycan cross-linkage, a true mechanism. Piperacillin is effective against Pseudomonas, especially with tazobactam, which is true. Only 5-10% of those with prior penicillin allergy react again, also true. The renal adjustment need is critical, as accumulation risks toxicity like seizures, guiding safe prescribing in kidney dysfunction.