ATI RN
Nursing Process Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
At the present time, the best treatment for cancer is complete __________ before metastasis occurs:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Surgical removal. Surgical removal of the cancerous tumor is the best treatment before metastasis because it physically removes the cancer cells. Chemotherapy and radiation are used to treat cancer after it has spread, not as the primary treatment. Choice D is incorrect because not all types of cancer can be effectively treated with all three options.
Question 2 of 9
Laboratory studies indicate a client’s blood pressure level is 185mg/dl. Two hours have passed since the client ate breakfast. Which test would yield the most occlusive diagnostic information about the client’s glucose utilization?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: A 6-hour glucose tolerance test. This test involves measuring blood glucose levels at specific intervals after consuming a glucose solution, providing a comprehensive assessment of glucose utilization over time. This test is particularly useful in evaluating how the body processes glucose after a meal and can help diagnose conditions such as diabetes. A: A fasting blood glucose test would not provide a comprehensive picture of glucose utilization over time since it only measures glucose levels in a fasted state. B: A test of serum glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c) reflects average blood glucose levels over the past 2-3 months but does not directly assess glucose utilization after a meal. D: A test for urine ketones is used to detect ketones in the urine, which can indicate diabetic ketoacidosis but does not directly measure glucose utilization.
Question 3 of 9
Which patient would benefit most from a capped IV catheter that is used intermittently rather than continuously?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, the elderly patient receiving a diuretic for fluid overload. This patient would benefit most from a capped IV catheter used intermittently because diuretics can lead to fluctuations in fluid balance that require careful monitoring and adjustment of IV fluids. By using the catheter intermittently, healthcare providers can better control the amount of fluid administered to prevent electrolyte imbalances. Option A is incorrect because a patient with pneumonia requiring fluids and antibiotics would likely benefit from a continuous IV to maintain stable levels of medications and hydration. Option B is incorrect as a patient with major blood loss would require continuous IV fluids to restore blood volume. Option C is incorrect as a dehydrated young child would also benefit from continuous IV fluids to rehydrate effectively.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the following diets would the nurse include in the plan of care for a person with AIDS?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A high-protein, high-calorie diet divided into six small meals. For a person with AIDS, this diet is beneficial to maintain muscle mass, support immune function, and provide energy. High-protein helps in tissue repair, while high-calorie intake helps combat weight loss common in AIDS. Dividing into small frequent meals aids in digestion and absorption. Choice B is incorrect because a low-fat diet may not provide enough calories for the increased energy needs of a person with AIDS. Choice C is incorrect because a high-carbohydrate, fat-restricted diet may not provide sufficient protein for muscle maintenance. Choice D is incorrect because a high-fat diet may lead to weight gain and can be harder to digest for someone with compromised immunity.
Question 5 of 9
Which immunoglobulin is specific to an allergic response?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: IgE. IgE is specific to allergic responses as it binds to mast cells and basophils, triggering the release of histamine and other inflammatory mediators. IgA is more involved in mucosal immunity, IgG is involved in long-term immunity and opsonization, and IgM is the primary antibody in the primary immune response. IgB is not a known immunoglobulin. Therefore, IgE is the specific immunoglobulin associated with allergic responses due to its role in mediating hypersensitivity reactions.
Question 6 of 9
For a client newly diagnosed with radiation-induced thrombocytopenia, the nurse should include which intervention in the plan of care?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: providing for frequent rest periods. This intervention is essential for a client with radiation-induced thrombocytopenia to prevent further platelet depletion and reduce the risk of bleeding episodes. Rest periods help conserve energy and minimize physical exertion, which can trigger bleeding in thrombocytopenic clients. Rationale: 1. Administering aspirin (choice A) is contraindicated in thrombocytopenia as it can further decrease platelet count and increase the risk of bleeding. 2. Inspecting the skin for petechiae (choice B) is important but not as crucial as providing rest periods in managing thrombocytopenia. 3. Placing the client in strict isolation (choice D) is not necessary for radiation-induced thrombocytopenia unless there are other specific infectious concerns. In summary, providing frequent rest periods is the most appropriate intervention to manage radiation-induced thrombocytopenia, promoting patient
Question 7 of 9
The nurse is interviewing a patient with a hearing deficit. Which area should the nurse use to conduct this interview?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because conducting the interview in a quiet environment, such as the waiting area with the television turned off, minimizes background noise and distractions for a patient with a hearing deficit. This setting allows for better communication and ensures that the patient can hear and understand the nurse clearly. A: Conducting the interview in the patient's room with the door closed may still have background noise from the hallway or other rooms. C: Conducting the interview before administration of pain medication is not relevant to improving communication for a patient with a hearing deficit. D: Conducting the interview in the waiting room while the occupational therapist is working on leg exercises introduces additional noise and distractions, making it difficult for the patient to focus on the conversation.
Question 8 of 9
Nurse Nancy also gives a lecture at the community health center about the diet for patients with ulcerative colitis. Which one is appropriate?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: high protein, low residue. For patients with ulcerative colitis, a high protein diet helps in tissue healing and repair. Low residue foods are recommended to reduce bowel irritation. Choice A is incorrect because low protein can impair healing. Choice B is unsuitable as high fiber may worsen symptoms. Choice D is not ideal as high carbohydrate can be difficult to digest for colitis patients.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse is providing breast cancer education at a community facility. The American Cancer Society recommends that women get with mammograms:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Yearly after age 40. This recommendation aligns with the American Cancer Society guidelines that suggest women should start getting annual mammograms at age 40. This age is important as it is when the risk of breast cancer increases. Yearly screenings help in early detection and better treatment outcomes. The other choices (B, C, D) are incorrect because they do not follow the ACS guidelines. Option B is incorrect as it does not specify an age for starting mammograms. Option C is incorrect as it suggests starting after the first menstrual period, which might be too early. Option D is incorrect as it recommends screenings every 3 years between ages 20 and 40, which is not in line with the ACS recommendation for yearly screenings after age 40.