ATI RN
Nursing Process Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
At the present time, the best treatment for cancer is complete __________ before metastasis occurs:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Surgical removal. Surgical removal of the cancerous tumor is the best treatment before metastasis because it physically removes the cancer cells. Chemotherapy and radiation are used to treat cancer after it has spread, not as the primary treatment. Choice D is incorrect because not all types of cancer can be effectively treated with all three options.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is interviewing a patient with a hearing deficit. Which area should the nurse use to conduct this interview?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because conducting the interview in a quiet environment, such as the waiting area with the television turned off, minimizes background noise and distractions for a patient with a hearing deficit. This setting allows for better communication and ensures that the patient can hear and understand the nurse clearly. A: Conducting the interview in the patient's room with the door closed may still have background noise from the hallway or other rooms. C: Conducting the interview before administration of pain medication is not relevant to improving communication for a patient with a hearing deficit. D: Conducting the interview in the waiting room while the occupational therapist is working on leg exercises introduces additional noise and distractions, making it difficult for the patient to focus on the conversation.
Question 3 of 9
A patient exhibits the following symptoms: tachycardia, increased thirst, headache, decreased urine output, and increased body temperature. The nurse analyzes the data. Which nursing diagnosis will the nurse assign to the patient?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct nursing diagnosis is C: Deficient fluid volume. The patient's symptoms indicate dehydration, as evidenced by tachycardia, increased thirst, decreased urine output, and increased body temperature. This points to a lack of fluid in the body. Option A, adult failure to thrive, does not address the immediate issue of fluid volume. Option B, hypothermia, is incorrect as the patient has an increased body temperature. Option D, nausea, is not a primary issue compared to the symptoms indicating dehydration. Therefore, the correct nursing diagnosis is C: Deficient fluid volume.
Question 4 of 9
Patients with Guillain-Barre Syndrome should be closely monitored. Which of the ff. parameters is most important to be checked regularly for acute complications?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: ABG. Monitoring ABG in Guillain-Barre Syndrome patients is crucial as they are at risk for respiratory complications like respiratory failure due to muscle weakness. ABG provides information on oxygenation, ventilation, and acid-base balance. Regular monitoring helps detect early signs of respiratory distress and guide appropriate interventions. A: BUN and creatinine are important for assessing renal function, but they do not directly relate to acute complications in Guillain-Barre Syndrome. B: Hgb and Hct are markers for anemia, which is not a common acute complication in Guillain-Barre Syndrome. D: Serum potassium levels are important, but ABG monitoring takes precedence in patients with Guillain-Barre Syndrome due to the risk of respiratory issues.
Question 5 of 9
Hemodynamic monitoring by means of a multilumen pulmonary artery catheter can provide detailed information about:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a multilumen pulmonary artery catheter can provide detailed information about preload, afterload, and cardiac output. Preload refers to the volume of blood in the ventricles at the end of diastole, afterload is the resistance the heart has to overcome to eject blood, and cardiac output is the amount of blood pumped by the heart per minute. This catheter allows for direct measurement of these parameters by monitoring pressures in the pulmonary artery. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect individually as they do not encompass the full range of information that can be obtained with a multilumen pulmonary artery catheter.
Question 6 of 9
Which action will the nurse take after the plan of care for a patient is developed?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because after developing a plan of care, the nurse must communicate it to all healthcare professionals involved in the patient's care to ensure everyone is aware of the plan and can collaborate effectively. This promotes continuity of care and prevents errors. Choice A is incorrect because the plan of care should not be placed in the chart to avoid tampering; it should be easily accessible for updates. Choice C is incorrect as filing in the administration office is unnecessary for routine care. Choice D is incorrect as sending the plan to quality assurance is not the immediate next step after developing the plan.
Question 7 of 9
The clinical manifestations of Parkinson’s disease (bradykinesia rigidity and tremors) is directly related to a decreased level of:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Dopamine. Parkinson's disease is primarily caused by a deficiency of dopamine in the brain, leading to the characteristic symptoms of bradykinesia, rigidity, and tremors. Dopamine is a neurotransmitter involved in movement control. Acetylcholine (Choice A) is not directly related to Parkinson's disease, although its imbalance can contribute to other movement disorders. Serotonin (Choice B) and Phenylalanine (Choice D) are not primarily involved in the pathophysiology of Parkinson's disease.
Question 8 of 9
A client who reports increasing difficulty swallowing, weight loss, and fatigue is diagnosed with esophageal cancer. Because this client has difficulty swallowing, the nurse should assign highest priority to:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Maintaining a patent airway. This is the highest priority because the client with esophageal cancer is at risk for airway obstruction due to difficulty swallowing. Maintaining a patent airway ensures adequate oxygenation and ventilation, which are vital for the client's survival. Without a clear airway, the client may experience respiratory distress or failure. Body image, preventing injury, and ensuring adequate nutrition are important aspects of care but do not take precedence over maintaining a patent airway in this situation.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse provides care for a client with deep partial-thickness burns. What could cause a reduced hematocrit (Hct) in this client?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Volume overload with hemodilution. In deep partial-thickness burns, there can be fluid shifts leading to volume overload. This excess fluid in the intravascular space can dilute the blood, resulting in a decreased hematocrit (Hct). Reduced Hct indicates lower concentration of red blood cells in the blood. Other choices are incorrect because hypoalbuminemia would lead to hemoconcentration, metabolic acidosis would not directly cause a reduced Hct, and lack of erythropoietin factor would primarily affect erythropoiesis but not directly lead to decreased Hct.