ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
At the pre-Entry phase, which of the following is the FIRST step in the CO-PAR process
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Create a core group. In the CO-PAR process, creating a core group is the first step in the pre-Entry phase as it establishes a team of committed individuals who will lead the participatory action research. This core group will provide leadership, coordination, and represent the diversity of the community. Surveying the community (choice A) comes after forming the core group to gather information. Training the technical working group (choice B) and holding a community assembly (choice C) are subsequent steps in the process after the core group is established.
Question 2 of 9
A patient presents with excessive thirst, large volumes of dilute urine, and low urine osmolality. Laboratory tests reveal hypernatremia and elevated serum osmolality. Which endocrine disorder is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Diabetes insipidus. This condition is characterized by excessive thirst, large volumes of dilute urine, low urine osmolality, hypernatremia, and elevated serum osmolality. The underlying cause is a deficiency in or insensitivity to antidiuretic hormone (ADH), leading to the inability of the kidneys to concentrate urine properly. Hyperthyroidism (choice A) and hypothyroidism (choice B) do not directly affect urine concentration. While diabetes mellitus (choice C) can also present with polyuria and polydipsia, it would typically have high urine osmolality due to the presence of glucose. Therefore, diabetes insipidus is the most likely endocrine disorder responsible for these specific symptoms.
Question 3 of 9
A postpartum client presents with persistent, severe perineal pain and swelling following a vaginal delivery. On assessment, the nurse notes ecchymosis and tenderness of the perineum. Which nursing action is most appropriate?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most appropriate nursing action in this situation is to notify the healthcare provider immediately. The client presenting with persistent, severe perineal pain and swelling, along with ecchymosis and tenderness of the perineum, could be indicative of complications such as a perineal hematoma. A perineal hematoma is a collection of blood in the perineal tissues and can be a serious postpartum complication requiring prompt medical attention. Therefore, it is crucial to alert the healthcare provider so that appropriate assessment, management, and treatment can be initiated promptly. Applying ice packs or encouraging the client to sit on a donut cushion may not be sufficient in this situation, and administering additional analgesic medication should be done only after the healthcare provider has assessed and determined the cause of the symptoms.
Question 4 of 9
Treatment of a patient without consent can constitute which is defined as intentional and unwanting touching.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: battery. Battery is the intentional and unwanted touching of another person without their consent, which can include medical treatment without consent. This is a clear violation of the patient's autonomy and can lead to legal consequences. Negligence (B) is the failure to exercise reasonable care, not intentional touching. Slander (C) is making false spoken statements that harm someone's reputation. Tort (D) is a broader term referring to civil wrongs, including battery, but not specifically addressing intentional and unwanted touching.
Question 5 of 9
Sensitivity is the ability of a screening test to accurately identify what aspect of the screening?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Persons who have the disease. Sensitivity measures how well a test correctly identifies individuals who have the disease (true positives). It is essential in determining the test's ability to detect the presence of the disease accurately. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because sensitivity focuses on correctly identifying individuals who have the disease, not those with symptoms, those without the disease, or those with a diagnosis of the disease.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following actions is recommended for managing a patient with a suspected snakebite?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Transporting the patient to a medical facility for antivenom administration. This is recommended because antivenom is the definitive treatment for snakebites. Tourniquets (choice A) can worsen tissue damage and should be avoided. Elevating the limb (choice B) may not prevent venom spread. Making an incision (choice C) can lead to infection and increased venom absorption. Antivenom administration at a medical facility is crucial for proper management of snakebites.
Question 7 of 9
A patient presents with recurrent episodes of throat pain, odynophagia, and fever. Physical examination reveals tonsillar enlargement with yellow-white exudates and tender cervical lymphadenopathy. Which of the following organisms is most likely responsible for this presentation?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Group A beta-hemolytic Streptococcus (GAS). GAS is the most likely organism responsible for this presentation, known as acute bacterial tonsillitis. GAS commonly causes symptoms such as throat pain, odynophagia, fever, tonsillar enlargement with exudates, and cervical lymphadenopathy. Streptococcal pharyngitis is a common bacterial infection of the throat caused by GAS. The other options are less likely as Streptococcus pneumoniae typically causes pneumonia and Haemophilus influenzae is associated with respiratory tract infections. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) commonly causes infectious mononucleosis, which presents with different symptoms than those described in the question.
Question 8 of 9
A patient with a history of congestive heart failure is prescribed furosemide. Which electrolyte imbalance is the patient at risk for developing with furosemide therapy?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works in the ascending loop of Henle to inhibit sodium and chloride reabsorption. Step 2: Inhibition of sodium reabsorption leads to increased water and electrolyte excretion, including potassium. Step 3: Increased potassium excretion can lead to hypokalemia, which is a common side effect of loop diuretics like furosemide. Step 4: Hypokalemia can be dangerous, especially in patients with congestive heart failure, as it can worsen cardiac function and lead to arrhythmias. Step 5: Therefore, patients with a history of congestive heart failure prescribed furosemide are at risk for developing hypokalemia due to increased potassium excretion.
Question 9 of 9
A postpartum client complains of persistent, heavy vaginal bleeding beyond the expected timeframe. Which nursing action is most appropriate?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In a postpartum client complaining of persistent, heavy vaginal bleeding, the most appropriate nursing action is to assess vital signs and uterine tone. This is important to determine if the bleeding is within normal limits or if there is a potential postpartum hemorrhage (PPH) occurring. Monitoring vital signs can help identify signs of shock, while assessing uterine tone can help determine if the uterus is contracting effectively to control bleeding. Prompt assessment and early detection of PPH are crucial for effective management and prevention of complications. Encouraging increased fluid intake, applying a cold compress, and administering pain medication may be appropriate interventions in some situations, but assessing vital signs and uterine tone take priority in this scenario.