At the pre-Entry phase, which of the following is the FIRST step in the CO-PAR process

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Question 1 of 9

At the pre-Entry phase, which of the following is the FIRST step in the CO-PAR process

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Create a core group. In the CO-PAR process, creating a core group is the first step in the pre-Entry phase as it establishes a team of committed individuals who will lead the participatory action research. This core group will provide leadership, coordination, and represent the diversity of the community. Surveying the community (choice A) comes after forming the core group to gather information. Training the technical working group (choice B) and holding a community assembly (choice C) are subsequent steps in the process after the core group is established.

Question 2 of 9

Nurse Victor reviews the medical history of patient Mila. Which of the following conditions is the MOST common cause of cardiogenic shock?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Acute myocardial infarction (MI) is the most common cause of cardiogenic shock. During an MI, there is significant damage to the heart muscle, leading to a decrease in cardiac output and subsequent shock. This results in inadequate tissue perfusion and oxygen delivery. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because decreased hemoglobin level (A) may lead to anemia but is not the most common cause of cardiogenic shock. Hypotension (C) is a symptom of shock, not the cause. Coronary artery disease (D) is a risk factor for MI but not the direct cause of cardiogenic shock.

Question 3 of 9

A woman in active labor is receiving an epidural analgesic for pain relief. What assessment findings indicate a potential complication of epidural analgesia?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: One potential complication of epidural analgesia in labor is maternal hypotension. The epidural analgesic can cause vasodilation, leading to a decrease in blood pressure. Maternal hypotension can result in decreased placental perfusion, which may jeopardize fetal well-being. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor the maternal blood pressure closely and intervene promptly if hypotension occurs by providing IV fluids or administering medication to raise blood pressure. Uterine hyperstimulation, fetal tachycardia, and respiratory depression are not typically associated with epidural analgesia as complications.

Question 4 of 9

Which of the following would prove that the nursing action carried out met, the standards of care on falls ?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Utilizing the nursing process in providing safe, quality nursing care. This is because the nursing process involves assessment, diagnosis, planning, implementation, and evaluation, which ensures comprehensive and individualized care. Documenting procedures (B) is important but does not guarantee meeting standards of care. Simply carrying out doctor's orders (C) may not address all aspects of patient care. Performing physical assessment (D) is crucial but only one component of the nursing process. Ultimately, utilizing the nursing process ensures holistic and evidence-based care, meeting the standards of care on falls.

Question 5 of 9

The PRIORITY nursing objective when caring a patient with a tracheostomy is _________.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: To provide a patent airway. When caring for a patient with a tracheostomy, ensuring a clear and unobstructed airway is the top priority to maintain adequate oxygenation and ventilation. This involves suctioning, maintaining proper tube placement, and monitoring for any signs of respiratory distress. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not address the immediate need for airway management, which is crucial for the patient's safety and well-being.

Question 6 of 9

When a nurse commits an error in the progress notes the BEST action she should do is to

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct action in this scenario is to choose option C: put a line across the sentence, make the correction over it, and sign. This method is recommended because it maintains the integrity of the original record by showing what was initially written and clearly indicating the correction. By crossing out the error, making the correction, and signing the entry, the nurse acknowledges and takes responsibility for the mistake while ensuring the accuracy and transparency of the documentation. Option A is incorrect as crossing the error many times can make the note illegible and may not clearly indicate the correction. Option B is incorrect because using correction fluid can make the note messy and may raise suspicions of tampering with the record. Option D is incorrect as erasing with a rubber eraser can damage the document and also raise concerns about the validity of the information. In summary, option C is the best choice as it allows for a clear and professional correction without compromising the integrity of the progress notes.

Question 7 of 9

A patient presents with fever, chills, headache, and myalgia after returning from a trip to sub-Saharan Africa. Laboratory tests reveal intraerythrocytic ring forms and trophozoites on blood smear examination. Which of the following is the most likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Plasmodium falciparum. Plasmodium falciparum is the most likely causative agent because the patient's symptoms of fever, chills, headache, and myalgia, along with the presence of intraerythrocytic ring forms and trophozoites on blood smear, are characteristic of malaria, particularly caused by P. falciparum in sub-Saharan Africa. Summary of other choices: B: Trypanosoma cruzi causes Chagas disease, which presents with symptoms like fever, rash, and swelling at the site of entry, not consistent with the patient's presentation. C: Borrelia burgdorferi causes Lyme disease, which typically presents with a characteristic rash (erythema migrans) and arthritis, not matching the patient's symptoms. D: Leishmania donovani causes visceral leishmaniasis, which presents with symptoms like weight loss, hepatosplen

Question 8 of 9

Treatment of a patient without consent can constitute which is defined as intentional and unwanting touching.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: battery. Battery is the intentional and unwanted touching of another person without their consent, which can include medical treatment without consent. This is a clear violation of the patient's autonomy and can lead to legal consequences. Negligence (B) is the failure to exercise reasonable care, not intentional touching. Slander (C) is making false spoken statements that harm someone's reputation. Tort (D) is a broader term referring to civil wrongs, including battery, but not specifically addressing intentional and unwanted touching.

Question 9 of 9

A patient with chronic bronchitis presents with chronic cough, sputum production, and exertional dyspnea. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate for managing the patient's symptoms and improving quality of life?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Bronchodilator therapy. Bronchodilators help to relax and open up the airways, which can improve airflow and reduce symptoms such as cough, sputum production, and dyspnea in patients with chronic bronchitis. This intervention can help manage the patient's symptoms and improve their quality of life by making it easier for them to breathe. A: Smoking cessation counseling is important for overall management of chronic bronchitis, but it does not directly address the patient's current symptoms. B: Oral antibiotic therapy may be indicated if there is evidence of a bacterial infection, but it is not the first-line treatment for managing chronic bronchitis symptoms. C: Home oxygen therapy may be necessary for patients with severe hypoxemia, but it is not typically the first intervention for managing symptoms of chronic bronchitis without evidence of significant oxygen desaturation.

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