ATI RN
Nursing Process NCLEX Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
At health fair, an oncology nurse answers questions about risk factors for various types of cancer. One person with a family history of colon cancer asks the nurse to identify risk factors for this type of cancer. The nurse should identify:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Obesity. Obesity is a known risk factor for colon cancer as excess body fat, especially around the waist, can lead to inflammation and insulin resistance, increasing the likelihood of cancerous cell growth in the colon. Smoking (choice A) is more strongly associated with lung and other types of cancer, not specifically colon cancer. Heavy alcohol consumption (choice C) is linked to other types of cancer, such as liver and esophageal cancer, but not as strongly to colon cancer. Saccharin consumption (choice D) has not been definitively linked to an increased risk of colon cancer.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse is completing an assessment using the PQRST to obtain data about the patient’s chest pain. Match the questions to the components of the PQRST that the nurse will be using.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Where is the pain located? This question corresponds to the "P" in PQRST, which stands for Provocation/Palliation. By asking where the pain is located, the nurse is gathering information about what triggers or relieves the pain, aiding in the assessment of the chest pain. The other choices are incorrect because: B: What causes the pain? - This question corresponds to the "Q" in PQRST, which stands for Quality. It focuses on understanding the characteristics of the pain, not the cause. C: Does it come and go? - This question corresponds to the "R" in PQRST, which stands for Radiation. It pertains to whether the pain spreads to other areas, not if it comes and goes. D: What does the pain feel like? - This question corresponds to the "S" in PQRST, which stands for Severity. It relates to the intensity of the pain, not its location.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the ff does the examiner note when auscultating the lungs of a client with pleural effusion?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because pleural effusion is the accumulation of fluid in the pleural space. When auscultating the lungs of a client with pleural effusion, the examiner would note decreased or absent breath sounds over the area where the fluid has accumulated. This is due to the fluid blocking the transmission of sound through the lungs. Pronounced breath sounds (choice A) would not be present due to the fluid obstructing the normal sound transmission. Expiratory wheezes (choice B) are associated with airway obstruction, not fluid accumulation. Friction rub (choice C) is a dry, grating sound heard with inflammation of the pleura, not specifically related to pleural effusion.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the following assessment findings would suggest to the home health nurse that the patient is developing congestive heart failure?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Orthopnea is a classic symptom of congestive heart failure (CHF) due to fluid accumulation in the lungs when lying flat. Step 2: This symptom occurs because when lying down, the fluid redistributes, making it harder to breathe. Step 3: Fever (choice B) is not typically associated with CHF unless there is an underlying infection. Step 4: Weight loss (choice C) is more indicative of conditions like cancer or malnutrition, not CHF. Step 5: Calf pain (choice D) is more commonly associated with deep vein thrombosis, not CHF. Summary: Orthopnea is the best assessment finding indicating CHF, while the other choices are more likely related to different health conditions.
Question 5 of 9
A client in the terminal stage of cancer is receiving continuous infusion of morphine (Duramorph) for pain management. Which assessment finding suggests that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of this drug?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min. Morphine is an opioid that can cause respiratory depression as a side effect. A respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min indicates hypoventilation, which is a potential adverse effect of morphine. This is a critical finding that requires immediate intervention to prevent respiratory failure or arrest. A: Voiding of 350mL of concentrated urine in 8 hours is not directly related to morphine's adverse effects. Morphine can cause urinary retention, not increased voiding. C: Irregular heart rate of 82 beats/min is within normal range and not a typical adverse effect of morphine. Morphine can cause bradycardia or tachycardia, but not irregular heart rate specifically. D: Pupils constricted and equal is a common side effect of morphine due to its effect on the central nervous system. This finding does not suggest an adverse effect; it is an expected pharmac
Question 6 of 9
The nurse is using critical thinking skills during the first phase of the nursing process. Which action indicates the nurse is in the first phase?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because during the first phase of the nursing process (assessment), the nurse gathers a comprehensive database of information about the patient's health status. This step is crucial for identifying the patient's needs and developing a holistic care plan. Choice B is incorrect because identifying nursing diagnoses typically occurs in the second phase (diagnosis). Choice C is incorrect as intervening based on care priorities happens in the third phase (planning and implementation). Choice D is incorrect as determining outcomes achieved is part of the final phase (evaluation).
Question 7 of 9
A patient is admitted to a medical unit with a diagnosis of heart failure. The patient reports that she has had increasing fatigue during the past 2 weeks. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this fatigue?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased cardiac output. Fatigue in heart failure is primarily due to decreased cardiac output, leading to reduced oxygen and nutrient delivery to tissues, causing fatigue. Dyspnea (A) is shortness of breath, not fatigue. Dry cough (C) is more associated with conditions like pulmonary issues, not fatigue. Orthopnea (D) is difficulty breathing while lying down, not specifically related to fatigue. Hence, decreased cardiac output is the most likely cause of fatigue in this patient.
Question 8 of 9
A very popular means of early detection of breast cancer is:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Breast self-examination. This is because regular breast self-examination allows individuals to become familiar with their own breast tissue and identify any changes or abnormalities early on. X-ray (choice A) and surgical (choice C) are not typically used as early detection methods for breast cancer. Choice B is also incorrect because while mammograms (X-rays) are an important screening tool, self-examination should not be replaced by it, as it is a proactive way for individuals to take charge of their own health.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse is preparing an intravenous infusion of phenytoin (Dilantin) as prescribed by the physician for the client with seizures. Which of the following solutions will the nurse plan to use to dilute this medication?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Normal saline solution. Phenytoin is incompatible with dextrose solutions, so options A and D are incorrect. Lactated Ringer's solution contains calcium, which can interact with phenytoin, leading to precipitation. Therefore, option B is also incorrect. Normal saline is the most compatible diluent for phenytoin, maintaining the drug's stability and effectiveness. It is essential to use the appropriate diluent to prevent adverse reactions or drug interactions.