ATI RN
Nursing Process NCLEX Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
At health fair, an oncology nurse answers questions about risk factors for various types of cancer. One person with a family history of colon cancer asks the nurse to identify risk factors for this type of cancer. The nurse should identify:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Obesity. Obesity is a known risk factor for colon cancer as excess body fat, especially around the waist, can lead to inflammation and insulin resistance, increasing the likelihood of cancerous cell growth in the colon. Smoking (choice A) is more strongly associated with lung and other types of cancer, not specifically colon cancer. Heavy alcohol consumption (choice C) is linked to other types of cancer, such as liver and esophageal cancer, but not as strongly to colon cancer. Saccharin consumption (choice D) has not been definitively linked to an increased risk of colon cancer.
Question 2 of 9
According to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, which nursing diagnosis has the lowest priority for a client admitted to the intensive care unit with a diagnosis of congestive heart failure?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Risk for body image disturbance. In Maslow's hierarchy, physiological needs like airway clearance take precedence over emotional or self-esteem needs like body image disturbance. Priority is given to addressing life-threatening issues first. Impaired urinary elimination could be related to the client's heart failure and should be addressed to prevent complications. Coping mechanisms are important for emotional well-being but are not as critical as physiological needs in this scenario.
Question 3 of 9
A patient was recently diagnosed with pneumonia. The nurse and the patient have established a goal that the patient will not experience shortness of breath with activity in 3 days with an expected outcome of having no secretions present in the lungs in 48 hours. Which evaluative measure will the nurse use to demonstrate progress toward this goal?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct evaluative measure is D: Lungs clear to auscultation following use of inhaler. This choice aligns with the expected outcome of having no secretions present in the lungs in 48 hours. By using an inhaler to clear the lungs, the nurse can assess if the expected outcome is being met. This measure directly evaluates the presence of secretions in the lungs, in line with the established goal. Incorrect Choices: A: No sputum or cough present in 4 days - This measure does not align with the expected outcome of having no secretions present in the lungs in 48 hours. B: Congestion throughout all lung fields in 2 days - This indicates a worsening condition and does not demonstrate progress towards the goal. C: Shallow, fast respirations 30 breaths per minute in 1 day - This measure is unrelated to the presence of secretions in the lungs and the goal of avoiding shortness of breath with activity.
Question 4 of 9
When preparing a site for venipunctures with alcohol, how long must the area be cleaned?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 60 seconds. This is because the area must be cleaned for at least 60 seconds to effectively disinfect the skin and reduce the risk of infection during venipuncture. Cleaning for shorter durations (5, 10, or 30 seconds) may not be sufficient to achieve proper disinfection. Thoroughly cleaning the area for a full minute ensures that the alcohol has enough time to kill bacteria and pathogens on the skin, making it safer for the venipuncture procedure. Shorter cleaning times may leave pathogens behind, increasing the risk of contamination and infection.
Question 5 of 9
As the nurse cares for a patient with angioedema, differs from urticaria in that angioedema is characterized by which of the following?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for choice C: Angioedema differs from urticaria as it involves deeper swelling in the dermis and subcutaneous tissue, leading to a more profound and firm texture. This contrasts with urticaria, which presents as superficial, raised wheals on the skin. Therefore, option C is correct. Summary of other choices: A: Angioedema is not typically associated with intense itching, so it is not more pruritic than urticaria. B: Angioedema does not have small, fluid-filled vesicles like in allergic contact dermatitis. D: Angioedema tends to last longer than urticaria, making this statement incorrect.
Question 6 of 9
A factory worker suffered a chemical burn to the eye and arrives at the Emergency department. What is the first action of the nurse?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: flush the eye continuously with sterile solution. This is the first action because it helps to remove the chemical from the eye, preventing further damage. Flushing with sterile solution dilutes and washes away the chemical, reducing the risk of ongoing injury. Applying a cold compress (A) may help with pain but does not address the chemical exposure. Applying a bandage (B) can trap the chemical and worsen the injury. Performing an assessment (C) should come after immediate treatment to ensure proper care but should not delay flushing the eye.
Question 7 of 9
A client's IV fluid orders for 24 hour's are 1500 ml D5W followed by 1250 ml of NS. The IV tubing has a drop factor of 15 gtt/ml. To administer the required fluids the nurse should set the drip rate at;
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: To calculate the drip rate, we first need to find the total volume of IV fluid to be administered, which is 1500 ml + 1250 ml = 2750 ml. Then, we multiply the total volume by the drop factor (2750 ml * 15 gtt/ml = 41250 gtt). Finally, we divide the total number of drops by the time in minutes (24 hours * 60 min = 1440 min) to get the drip rate: 41250 gtt / 1440 min = 28.47 gtt/min, which rounds up to 29 gtt/min. Therefore, choice B is correct. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not reflect the accurate calculation based on the given parameters.
Question 8 of 9
A 39 y.o. homemaker sees her physician after she falls twice for seemingly no reason. Diagnostic tests are done, and she is diagnosed with multiple sclerosis. Which of the ff. explanations will help her understand her disease?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: Multiple sclerosis (MS) is characterized by damage to the myelin sheath, not a build-up of myelin. Step 2: MS affects the nerves, not neurotransmitters related to muscle contraction (eliminates choice B). Step 3: MS does not damage receptor sites on muscles but affects nerve signal transmission (eliminates choice C). Step 4: The correct answer, D, explains that MS damages the insulation on nerve cells (myelin sheath), leading to slower nerve impulses to the muscles, causing weakness and coordination issues.
Question 9 of 9
A patient is admitted to a medical unit with a diagnosis of heart failure. The patient reports that she has had increasing fatigue during the past 2 weeks. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this fatigue?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased cardiac output. Fatigue in heart failure is primarily due to decreased cardiac output, leading to reduced oxygen and nutrient delivery to tissues, causing fatigue. Dyspnea (A) is shortness of breath, not fatigue. Dry cough (C) is more associated with conditions like pulmonary issues, not fatigue. Orthopnea (D) is difficulty breathing while lying down, not specifically related to fatigue. Hence, decreased cardiac output is the most likely cause of fatigue in this patient.