At about what age does an infant start to recognize familiar faces and objects, such as a feeding bottle?

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Pediatric Nursing Exam Preparation Questions

Question 1 of 5

At about what age does an infant start to recognize familiar faces and objects, such as a feeding bottle?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Understanding the developmental milestones of infants is crucial for pediatric nurses as it guides their assessment and care planning. In this case, the correct answer is C) 3 months. At around 3 months of age, infants typically start to recognize familiar faces and objects, such as a feeding bottle. This milestone is part of their social and cognitive development, signaling the beginning of their ability to distinguish between different stimuli in their environment. Option A) 1 month is too early for infants to demonstrate the level of recognition described in the question. While infants may start to track objects with their eyes at this age, true recognition of familiar faces and objects usually emerges a bit later. Option B) 2 months is still early for the specific recognition mentioned in the question. Infants may begin to show more interest in faces and objects during this time, but the level of recognition described typically solidifies around the 3-month mark. Option D) 4 months is beyond the typical age range when infants start recognizing familiar faces and objects. By this age, most infants have already developed this ability and are progressing to more advanced social interactions and cognitive skills. Educationally, understanding these developmental timelines helps pediatric nurses assess infants' progress and identify any potential delays or concerns. It also enables them to educate parents on what to expect in their child's development and provide appropriate support and interventions when needed.

Question 2 of 5

A 13-year-old male presented with delirium, mumbling speech, tachycardia, dry flushed skin, dilated pupils, myoclonus, slightly elevated temperature, urinary retention, decreased bowel sounds, seizures, and dysrhythmia. The MOST likely cause is

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B) amphetamine. This presentation aligns with amphetamine toxicity symptoms, which include delirium, tachycardia, mydriasis, hyperthermia, myoclonus, urinary retention, decreased bowel sounds, seizures, and dysrhythmias. Educational context: Amphetamines are stimulant drugs that can lead to severe toxicity, especially in adolescents due to their misuse for performance enhancement or recreational purposes. A) Antidepressant agents typically do not cause the constellation of symptoms described in the case. They may present with altered mental status and other specific signs. C) Barbiturates are central nervous system depressants and would not typically cause tachycardia, mydriasis, or myoclonus seen in this case. D) Benzodiazepines are central nervous system depressants that would not usually cause the symptoms described. They typically present with sedation, respiratory depression, and decreased level of consciousness. It is crucial for pediatric nurses to be able to recognize signs of drug toxicity in adolescents, as prompt identification and intervention are essential to prevent serious complications and provide appropriate care.

Question 3 of 5

The contraceptive method with the highest failure rate even with perfect use is

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is C) spermicides. Spermicides have the highest failure rate among contraceptive methods, even with perfect use, due to their reliance on user application accuracy. Spermicides need to be applied correctly before each act of intercourse to be effective, making them more prone to human error compared to other methods. The progestin-releasing intrauterine device (A) and progestin-only injection (B) are highly effective contraceptive methods with lower failure rates as they do not require daily user compliance. These methods provide long-acting protection against pregnancy. Male condoms (D) are also effective when used consistently and correctly. However, their failure rate is lower compared to spermicides due to their physical barrier mechanism that helps prevent sperm from reaching the egg. In an educational context, understanding the efficacy and failure rates of different contraceptive methods is crucial for healthcare providers, especially in pediatric nursing. By knowing the nuances of each method, nurses can provide accurate information to adolescents and their families, helping them make informed decisions about their reproductive health and contraceptive choices. It also emphasizes the importance of proper education and counseling on contraceptive use to prevent unintended pregnancies and promote safe sexual practices.

Question 4 of 5

You are ventilating a full-term baby with meconium aspiration syndrome, who was fine on the machine but suddenly shows severe drop in O2 saturation. What is the most likely cause?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the most likely cause of the sudden drop in O2 saturation in a full-term baby with meconium aspiration syndrome is option B) endotracheal tube blockade. This is the correct answer because a blockage in the endotracheal tube would prevent the delivery of oxygen to the baby's lungs, leading to decreased oxygen saturation levels. Option A) O2 source supply is less likely to be the cause because if the machine was initially working fine and suddenly there is a drop in O2 saturation, it indicates a problem beyond the oxygen source supply. Option C) self-extubation is also less likely in this situation as it would typically result in sudden desaturation but not due to a drop in oxygen saturation as described in the scenario. Option D) low inspiratory pressure value is an important consideration in mechanical ventilation, but it is less likely to cause a sudden severe drop in O2 saturation compared to an endotracheal tube blockade. Educationally, it is crucial for pediatric nurses to be able to quickly identify and troubleshoot potential complications during ventilation in neonates, especially in critical conditions like meconium aspiration syndrome. Understanding the possible causes of sudden desaturation and knowing how to address them promptly can be life-saving for the infant. Regular training, simulation exercises, and staying updated on best practices in pediatric nursing are essential for nurses to provide safe and effective care to neonatal patients.

Question 5 of 5

Which of the following is a risk factor for neonatal sepsis?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In the context of pediatric nursing, understanding risk factors for neonatal sepsis is crucial for providing effective care to newborns. The correct answer is D) low birth weight. Low birth weight infants are more vulnerable to infections due to their underdeveloped immune systems and are at a higher risk for neonatal sepsis. A) Maternal diabetes is not directly linked to neonatal sepsis. While diabetes can increase the risk of certain complications during pregnancy, it is not a primary risk factor for neonatal sepsis. B) Maternal hypertension, similarly to diabetes, does not directly contribute to neonatal sepsis. While it can lead to other maternal and fetal complications, it is not a specific risk factor for neonatal sepsis. C) Advanced maternal age is not a direct risk factor for neonatal sepsis. While older maternal age can be associated with certain pregnancy-related complications, it is not a primary factor in the development of neonatal sepsis. Educationally, it is important for nursing students to understand the specific risk factors for neonatal sepsis to provide targeted care and interventions for at-risk newborns. By knowing which factors contribute to neonatal sepsis, nurses can actively monitor and prevent infections in vulnerable neonates, ultimately improving patient outcomes.

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