ATI RN
ATI Intro to Pharmacology Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 9
At a dose of 10 mg, drug X lowers total cholesterol by 50 mg/dL, while a maximum drop in cholesterol of 65 mg/dL is achieved at 40 mg. At a dose of 5 mg, drug Y lowers cholesterol by 50 mg/dL, while a maximum drop in cholesterol of 55 mg/dL is achieved at 10 mg. What can be concluded about the efficacy and potency of these two drugs?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Potency is dose for effect-Drug Y lowers 50 mg/dL at 5 mg, versus X at 10 mg, making Y more potent. Efficacy is max effect-X's 65 mg/dL beats Y's 55 mg/dL, giving X higher efficacy. X isn't more potent-higher dose needed. Y's potency and X's efficacy align with data, per pharmacodynamics.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is managing the care of a group of patients with schizophrenia. The patients are receiving conventional antipsychotic medications. When assessing for anticholinergic side effects, which would the nurse immediately report to the physician?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Conventional antipsychotics like haloperidol have anticholinergic effects, including dry mouth, constipation, and urinary retention. Urinary retention is a medical emergency if severe, risking bladder damage or infection, requiring immediate physician reporting. Acute dystonia is an extrapyramidal side effect, not anticholinergic, though urgent. Severe headache could indicate various issues but isn't a typical anticholinergic effect. Hypertension isn't directly linked to anticholinergic action (hypotension is more common). The nurse prioritizes urinary retention due to its potential for rapid complications, aligning with anticholinergic pharmacology, making choice D the most critical to report.
Question 3 of 9
At a dose of 10 mg, drug X lowers total cholesterol by 50 mg/dL, while a maximum drop in cholesterol of 65 mg/dL is achieved at 40 mg. At a dose of 5 mg, drug Y lowers cholesterol by 50 mg/dL, while a maximum drop in cholesterol of 55 mg/dL is achieved at 10 mg. What can be concluded about the efficacy and potency of these two drugs?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Potency is dose for effect-Drug Y lowers 50 mg/dL at 5 mg, versus X at 10 mg, making Y more potent. Efficacy is max effect-X's 65 mg/dL beats Y's 55 mg/dL, giving X higher efficacy. X isn't more potent-higher dose needed. Y's potency and X's efficacy align with data, per pharmacodynamics.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse is preparing to transfuse a patient with a unit of packed red blood cells (PRBCs). Which patient would be best treated with this transfusion?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Packed red blood cells (PRBCs) are typically transfused to patients with severe anemia, where the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood is significantly reduced. PRBCs are concentrated units of red blood cells that can quickly increase the blood's oxygen-carrying capacity. Patients with severe anemia may experience symptoms such as fatigue, weakness, shortness of breath, and pale skin. Transfusion of PRBCs helps to improve oxygen delivery to tissues and organs, alleviating these symptoms and improving the patient's overall well-being.
Question 5 of 9
What is the therapeutic use of metformin?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Metformin is commonly used in the treatment of Type 2 diabetes. It works by helping to control blood sugar levels by decreasing glucose production in the liver and improving insulin sensitivity in the muscles. Therefore, the therapeutic use of metformin is in the maintenance of a person's blood glucose levels. While metformin can sometimes be associated with minor effects like gastrointestinal disturbances, it is not used to increase heart rate or decrease gastrointestinal secretions.
Question 6 of 9
What is the therapeutic action of Phenytoin?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Phenytoin is an anticonvulsant medication commonly used in the treatment of seizures, including tonic-clonic (grand mal) seizures, complex partial seizures, and seizures occurring during neurosurgery. It works by stabilizing the excitable cell membranes in the brain, thereby reducing abnormal electrical activity that can lead to seizures. Phenytoin is not used as an antidiabetic, mood stabilizer, or antianxiety agent.
Question 7 of 9
A 42-year-old woman with a 1-year history of rheumatoid arthritis comes to see her primary care physician complaining of worsening symptoms. She has been taking leflunomide. IL-1 and TNF-α are two key cytokines involved in the negative sequelae of rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following drugs is a recombinant form of an endogenous IL-1 antagonist?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: RA involves IL-1 and TNF-α driving inflammation. The question seeks a recombinant IL-1 antagonist. Abatacept inhibits T-cell costimulation, not IL-1. Anakinra , a recombinant IL-1 receptor antagonist (IL-1Ra), blocks IL-1 signaling, matching the description. Methotrexate slows cell proliferation, not an IL-1 antagonist. Hydroxychloroquine modulates immunity differently. Rituximab (E) targets B cells. Anakinra mimics natural IL-1Ra, reducing joint damage in RA when leflunomide fails, directly countering IL-1's effects, unlike broader or unrelated mechanisms of other options.
Question 8 of 9
Clearance:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Clearance (CL = rate of elimination / plasma concentration) is the amount of drug removed per unit time relative to concentration, a true statement defining its calculation. It's constant for first-order kinetics drugs at therapeutic levels, true. Lithium's clearance is moderate, not very high, handled by kidneys, so that's false. Phenytoin's clearance decreases with concentration (zero-order at high doses), not independent, making that false. Clearance isn't inversely proportional to Vd but related via half-life. This definition is essential for dosing regimens, ensuring steady-state maintenance.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse administers atenolol (Tenormin) to a client with hypertension. Which finding would prompt the nurse to hold the dose and notify the physician?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Atenolol, a beta-blocker, lowers blood pressure and heart rate by blocking sympathetic stimulation. A heart rate of 52 bpm is bradycardic (below 60 bpm), a threshold for holding beta-blockers due to risk of inadequate perfusion, especially in hypertension where cardiac output matters. Holding and notifying the physician prevents harm, allowing reassessment. BP of 130/80 is controlled, not urgent. Respiratory rate of 18 and temperature of 98.6°F are normal. Atenolol's selectivity for beta-1 receptors makes bradycardia a key adverse effect, requiring vigilance. This action aligns with nursing protocols for beta-blockers, prioritizing cardiovascular stability, making B the finding warranting immediate intervention.