ATI RN
Critical Care Nursing Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
assessment, the patient is restless, heart rate has increased to 110 beats/min, respirations are 36 breaths/min, and blood pressure is 156/98 mm Hg. The cardiac monitor shows sinaubsir bt.acocmh/ytecsat rdia with 10 premature ventricular contractions (PVCs) per minute. Pulmonary artery pressures are elevated. The nurse suctions the patient and obtains pink, frothy secretio ns. Loud crackles are audible throughout lung fields. The nurse notifies the physician, w ho orders an ABG analysis, electrolyte levels, and a portable chest x-ray study. How d oes the nurse interpret the following blood gas levels? pH 7.28 PaCO 46 mm Hg Bicarbonate 22 mEq/L PaO 58 mm Hg O saturation 88% 2
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypoxemia and uncompensated respiratory acidosis. Step-by-step rationale: 1. pH is low (7.28), indicating acidosis. 2. PaCO2 is elevated (46 mm Hg), indicating respiratory acidosis. 3. PaO2 is low (58 mm Hg), indicating hypoxemia. 4. Bicarbonate is within normal range (22 mEq/L), suggesting no compensation for the acidosis. 5. Oxygen saturation is low (88%), supporting the presence of hypoxemia. Summary: A: Incorrect - pH is low, not indicating compensated alkalosis. C: Incorrect - Various abnormalities in the blood gas levels are present. D: Incorrect - There is hypoxemia and uncompensated acidosis, not metabolic alkalosis.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse plans a teaching session with a client but postpones the planned session based on which nursing problem?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for choice C: 1. Activity intolerance is a priority nursing problem postoperatively due to pain. 2. Postoperative pain can limit the client's ability to perform activities. 3. Addressing activity intolerance is crucial for promoting recovery and preventing complications. 4. Delaying the teaching session helps the nurse focus on managing pain first. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: - Choice A: Knowledge deficit can be addressed after managing immediate postoperative issues. - Choice B: Treatment regimen management is important but may not be as urgent as addressing activity intolerance related to pain. - Choice D: Noncompliance with exercise plan can be addressed once the client's pain and activity intolerance are under control.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse is caring for a terminally ill patient who has 20-second periods of apnea followed by periods of deep and rapid breathing. Which action by the nurse would be most appropriate?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the patient is exhibiting Cheyne-Stokes breathing pattern characterized by periods of apnea followed by deep and rapid breathing. The nurse should document this pattern accurately. Option A is incorrect as suctioning is not indicated. Option B may worsen the respiratory pattern. Option C is not specifically related to addressing the breathing pattern.
Question 4 of 9
The AACN Standards for Acute and Critical Care Nursing Practice uses what framework to guide critical care nursing practice?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Evidence-based practice. The AACN Standards for Acute and Critical Care Nursing Practice emphasize the use of evidence-based practice to guide critical care nursing. This framework ensures that nursing interventions are based on the best available evidence, leading to improved patient outcomes. Healthy work environment (B) and National Patient Safety Goals (C) are important but not specific frameworks for critical care nursing. The nursing process (D) is a systematic approach to delivering patient care but is not the primary guiding framework in critical care nursing practice.
Question 5 of 9
The charge nurse is supervising care for a group of patients monitored with a variety of invasive hemodynamic devices. Which patient should the charge nurse evaluate first?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because a pulmonary artery occlusion pressure of 25 mm Hg indicates possible fluid overload or cardiac issue requiring urgent evaluation. This value is high, suggesting increased pressure in the left side of the heart. Additionally, the oxygen saturation of 89% on 3 L of oxygen indicates potential respiratory compromise. This patient needs immediate assessment and intervention to prevent worsening of their condition. Choice A is incorrect as a central venous pressure of 6 mm Hg is within normal limits, and the urine output is adequate. Choice B is incorrect as a BP of 110/60 mm Hg is acceptable, and a slightly dampened arterial waveform is not an immediate concern. Choice D is incorrect as a pulmonary artery pressure of 25/10 mm Hg is within normal range, and an oxygen saturation of 94% on 2 L of oxygen is acceptable.
Question 6 of 9
When addressing an ethical dilemma, contextual, physiolo gical, and personal factors of the situation must be considered. Which of the following is an example of a personal factor?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the patient's expressed beliefs and wishes regarding quality of life are personal factors that directly influence the ethical dilemma. This factor reflects the individual's values, beliefs, and preferences, which are essential in making ethical decisions that respect the patient's autonomy. Considering the patient's beliefs helps healthcare professionals navigate complex ethical situations by aligning the care provided with the patient's values. Choices A, B, and D do not directly relate to personal factors but rather focus on hospital policies, physiological symptoms, and the provider's perspective, respectively. Personal factors are crucial in ethical decision-making as they center on the patient's autonomy and preferences.
Question 7 of 9
A patient’s vital signs are pulse 87, respirations 24, BP of 128/64 mm Hg, and cardiac output is 4.7 L/min. The patient’s stroke volume is ______ mL. (Round to the nearest whole number.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The stroke volume is calculated by dividing the cardiac output by the heart rate. Given the cardiac output of 4.7 L/min and a heart rate of 87 bpm, the stroke volume is 54 mL (4700 mL/87 bpm ≈ 54 mL). Therefore, choice A (54) is the correct answer. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not match the calculated stroke volume based on the provided cardiac output and heart rate.
Question 8 of 9
A male client who has been taking propranolol (Inderal) for 18 months tells the nurse that the healthcare provider discontinued the medication because his blood pressure has been normal for the past three months. Which instruction should the nurse provide?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Ask the healthcare provider about tapering the drug dose over the next week. This answer is correct because propranolol is a beta-blocker, and abrupt discontinuation can lead to rebound hypertension, angina, or even myocardial infarction due to the sudden withdrawal of the medication. Tapering the drug dose over time allows the body to adjust gradually and reduces the risk of these adverse effects. Choice A is incorrect because obtaining another antihypertensive prescription is not necessary if the client's blood pressure has been normal for the past three months. Choice B is incorrect because abruptly stopping the medication without tapering can lead to withdrawal symptoms. Choice C is incorrect because simply reporting uncomfortable symptoms without taking appropriate action (tapering the drug dose) is not addressing the potential risks associated with abrupt discontinuation of propranolol.
Question 9 of 9
The patient is admitted with acute kidney injury from a postrenal cause. Acceptable treatments for that diagnosis include: (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Bladder catheterization helps relieve urinary obstruction, a common postrenal cause of acute kidney injury. 2. By draining urine from the bladder, it prevents further damage to the kidneys. 3. This intervention addresses the underlying cause of the kidney injury, leading to improvement. Summary: - Choice A is correct as it directly addresses the postrenal cause by relieving urinary obstruction. - Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not target the specific postrenal cause of acute kidney injury.