Assessing a patient after intravenous morphine administration, the nurse notes cold, clammy skin; a pulse of 40 beats/min; respirations of 10 breaths/min; and constricted pupils. Which medication will the patient likely need next?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The patient's symptoms—cold, clammy skin, bradycardia, respiratory depression, and constricted pupils—are classic signs of opioid overdose. Naloxone is the antidote for opioid overdose and should be administered immediately to reverse the life-threatening effects of morphine. Meloxicam, pentazocine, and propoxyphene are not appropriate in this situation. Nurses must recognize the signs of opioid toxicity and act quickly to administer naloxone, ensuring the patient's airway, breathing, and circulation are supported.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Elevated AST levels in liver function tests should be reported to the provider when a client is prescribed Metformin due to the potential risk of hepatotoxicity associated with the medication. Elevated Hemoglobin A1C (choice A), Creatinine level within normal range (choice B), and BUN level within normal range (choice C) are not directly concerning when initiating Metformin therapy.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: It is important to educate a patient that Regular Insulin should be injected subcutaneously to ensure proper absorption of the medication. Injecting the insulin into the subcutaneous tissue allows for a slower and more consistent absorption of the medication, which helps in controlling blood glucose levels effectively. Administering insulin subcutaneously also minimizes the risk of complications associated with other injection sites or techniques.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Flumazenil is the specific antidote used to reverse the effects of Alprazolam. Alprazolam is a benzodiazepine, and Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine receptor antagonist that works by competitively inhibiting the actions of benzodiazepines at the receptor site, effectively reversing their sedative and other effects. Physostigmine is not used as an antidote for benzodiazepine overdose and can have significant side effects. Protamine sulfate is used to reverse the effects of heparin, not benzodiazepines like Alprazolam. Acetylcysteine is used as an antidote for acetaminophen overdose, not benzodiazepines like Alprazolam.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The first action the healthcare professional should take is to check the client's allergy history before administering the antibiotic to prevent a potential allergic reaction. It is crucial to identify any known allergies to antibiotics to ensure the client's safety and well-being. Administering an antihistamine prior to the antibiotic (Choice A) is not recommended unless an allergic reaction occurs. Monitoring the client's urine output (Choice B) and assessing the client's vital signs (Choice D) are important but not the first step in this situation. Checking the client's allergy history takes precedence to prevent adverse reactions.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Montelukast should be taken daily in the evening to effectively manage asthma symptoms. Taking it at the same time each day helps maintain a consistent level of the medication in the body, providing optimal control over asthma symptoms and inflammation. Choice A is incorrect because Montelukast should not be taken specifically before exercise, but rather daily. Choice C is incorrect because although taking Montelukast two hours before exercise is not necessary, taking it daily in the evening is essential for its effectiveness. Choice D is incorrect as Montelukast should be taken daily to manage asthma.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse is to infuse IV Acyclovir over at least 1 hour to prevent nephrotoxicity. Rapid infusion can lead to adverse effects, so a slow infusion rate is crucial for patient safety. Monitoring blood pressure, administering a stool softener, or monitoring blood glucose levels are not directly related to the administration of IV Acyclovir for Herpes Zoster.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Malignant hyperthermia (MH) from halothane involves excitation-contraction coupling defects . MH, a genetic disorder, stems from ryanodine receptor (RYR1) mutations, causing uncontrolled calcium release in muscle, not drug toxicity . Sodium defects , oxygen deficits , or neural overmodulation (E) aren't implicated. This coupling defect triggers hypermetabolism, explaining MH's rapid onset with halothane exposure.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct antidote for Warfarin is Vitamin K. Warfarin works by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. Administering Vitamin K helps reverse its effects by replenishing these factors. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Naloxone is used to reverse opioid overdose, Glucagon is used to treat severe low blood sugar, and Vitamin B is not the antidote for Warfarin.