As the surgical incision is closed, who are the personnel in-charge in counting the needles, sponges, and instruments?

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Nursing Process 1 Test Questions Questions

Question 1 of 9

As the surgical incision is closed, who are the personnel in-charge in counting the needles, sponges, and instruments?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C - the circulating and scrub nurse first assistant. The circulating nurse is responsible for counting needles, sponges, and instruments during the closing of the surgical incision to ensure nothing is left inside the patient. The scrub nurse first assistant also plays a crucial role in this process by assisting in the counting and keeping track of the items used during the procedure. The other choices are incorrect because the surgeon and anesthesiologist (A) are not typically involved in counting items during the surgical closure, the surgeon and the registered (B) may not have the necessary training for accurate counting, and the anesthesiologist and anesthetist (D) are not directly involved in the surgical closing process.

Question 2 of 9

A patient presents to the emergency department following a motor vehicle crash and suffers a right femur fracture. The leg is stabilized in a full leg cast. Otherwise, the patient has no other major injuries, is in good health, and reports only moderate discomfort. Which is the most pertinent nursing diagnosis the nurse will include in the plan of care?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The most pertinent nursing diagnosis for this patient is acute pain (Choice C). This is because the patient's right femur fracture would likely cause significant pain and discomfort, which is a priority to address for optimal recovery and comfort. Managing pain effectively is crucial in promoting healing and preventing complications. Posttrauma syndrome (Choice A) is not as immediate a concern in this scenario. While constipation (Choice B) and anxiety (Choice D) are important considerations, addressing acute pain takes precedence in the initial plan of care to ensure the patient's comfort and well-being.

Question 3 of 9

Which neurotransmitter mediates the sympathetic response?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Norepinephrine. Norepinephrine is the primary neurotransmitter that mediates the sympathetic response. It is released by sympathetic nerve endings and acts on adrenergic receptors in various target organs to initiate the "fight or flight" response. Prostaglandin, acetylcholine, and serotonin do not directly mediate the sympathetic response and are involved in different physiological processes.

Question 4 of 9

Which is the most reliable method for monitoring fluid balance?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Daily intake and output. Monitoring fluid balance involves tracking the amount of fluids taken in and expelled from the body. Intake includes oral, IV, and tube feedings, while output includes urine, vomitus, diarrhea, and any other fluid losses. Daily intake and output provide a comprehensive view of a patient's fluid status, helping identify trends and potential issues. Vital signs (B) provide general information but not specific to fluid balance. Daily weight (C) can fluctuate due to various factors, not just fluid status. Skin turgor (D) is a late sign of dehydration and not as reliable as intake and output monitoring.

Question 5 of 9

Which of the ff symptoms is associated with AIDS related distal sensory polyneuropathy (DSP)?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Abnormal sensations such as burning and numbness. In AIDS-related DSP, damage to nerves causes abnormal sensations like burning and numbness. This is due to the progressive nerve damage affecting sensory functions. Staggering gait and muscle incoordination (A) are more common in conditions affecting motor nerves. Delusional thinking (C) is not a symptom of DSP. Incontinence (D) is not typically associated with DSP but may happen in more advanced stages due to loss of sensation.

Question 6 of 9

A charge nurse is reviewing outcome statements using the SMART approach. Which patient outcome statement will the charge nurse praise to the new nurse?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because it follows the SMART approach: Specific (monitor heart rhythm), Measurable (continuously this shift), Achievable (feed self at all mealtimes), Relevant (shortness of breath), and Time-bound (today). Choice A lacks specificity and measurability. Choice C focuses on the nurse's action, not patient outcomes. Choice D lacks specificity and measurability, focusing on the nurse's actions rather than patient outcomes.

Question 7 of 9

A nurse is gathering information about a patients habits and lifestyle patterns. Which method of data collection will the nurse use that will best obtain this information?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Perform a thorough nursing health history. This method is the best for gathering information about a patient's habits and lifestyle patterns because it involves asking specific questions related to the patient's daily routines, habits, and lifestyle choices. By obtaining a comprehensive health history, the nurse can gather valuable information about the patient's diet, exercise habits, sleep patterns, stress levels, substance use, and other lifestyle factors that may impact their health. Reviewing lab results (A) may provide some information but not specifically about habits and lifestyle. Conducting a physical assessment (B) focuses more on the patient's physical condition rather than lifestyle. Prolonging the termination phase of the interview (D) is not a method of data collection and does not focus on gathering information about habits and lifestyle patterns.

Question 8 of 9

A client with advanced breast cancer is prescribed tamoxifen (Nolvadex). When teaching the client about this drug, the nurse should emphasize the importance of reporting which adverse reaction immediately?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Vision changes. This is crucial to report immediately because tamoxifen can cause serious eye problems such as retinopathy. Vision changes could indicate a potentially serious adverse reaction that requires prompt medical attention to prevent permanent damage. Headache, hearing loss, and anorexia are not typically associated with tamoxifen use and are less urgent in nature. Reporting vision changes promptly can help prevent irreversible harm and ensure timely intervention.

Question 9 of 9

If the systolic BP is elevated and the diastolic BP is normal, the nurse recognizes that a patient is most likely to have which type of hypertension?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Isolated systolic hypertension. This is because in isolated systolic hypertension, the systolic blood pressure is elevated while the diastolic blood pressure remains normal. This condition is common in older adults and is often related to aging and stiffening of the arteries. Primary hypertension (A) typically involves both elevated systolic and diastolic pressures. Secondary hypertension (C) is caused by an underlying condition. Hypertensive emergency (D) is characterized by severe elevations in both systolic and diastolic pressures with acute target organ damage.

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