ATI RN
Nursing Process 1 Test Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
As the surgical incision is closed, who are the personnel in-charge in counting the needles, sponges, and instruments?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C - the circulating and scrub nurse first assistant. The circulating nurse is responsible for counting needles, sponges, and instruments during the closing of the surgical incision to ensure nothing is left inside the patient. The scrub nurse first assistant also plays a crucial role in this process by assisting in the counting and keeping track of the items used during the procedure. The other choices are incorrect because the surgeon and anesthesiologist (A) are not typically involved in counting items during the surgical closure, the surgeon and the registered (B) may not have the necessary training for accurate counting, and the anesthesiologist and anesthetist (D) are not directly involved in the surgical closing process.
Question 2 of 9
Bell’s palsy is a ___ cranial nerve disorder characterized by weakness or paralysis of the facial muscles.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 7th cranial nerve. Bell's palsy is caused by inflammation of the facial nerve (7th cranial nerve), leading to facial muscle weakness or paralysis. The 3rd cranial nerve (choice A) controls eye movement, the 5th cranial nerve (choice C) is responsible for facial sensation and chewing, and the 8th cranial nerve (choice D) is related to hearing and balance. Bell's palsy specifically affects the facial muscles, making choice B the correct answer.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the ff is the best dietary advice to maximize the immune function in healthy people?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. A balanced and varied diet provides essential nutrients for immune function. 2. Including a wide range of foods ensures intake of vitamins, minerals, and antioxidants crucial for immune health. 3. Avoiding extremes like excessive immune-enhancing formulas or eliminating polyunsaturated fatty acids maintains balance. 4. Essential fatty acids and omega-3 fatty acids are beneficial but should be part of a well-rounded diet. 5. For clients with immune-mediated disorders, individualized dietary advice may be necessary. Summary: - A: Immune-enhancing formulas may not be necessary and could disrupt balance. - B: Avoiding all polyunsaturated fatty acids is not advisable as some are essential for health. - C: Increasing essential fatty acids is beneficial but should be part of a balanced diet.
Question 4 of 9
If the systolic BP is elevated and the diastolic BP is normal, the nurse recognizes that a patient is most likely to have which type of hypertension?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Isolated systolic hypertension. This is because in isolated systolic hypertension, the systolic blood pressure is elevated while the diastolic blood pressure remains normal. This condition is common in older adults and is often related to aging and stiffening of the arteries. Primary hypertension (A) typically involves both elevated systolic and diastolic pressures. Secondary hypertension (C) is caused by an underlying condition. Hypertensive emergency (D) is characterized by severe elevations in both systolic and diastolic pressures with acute target organ damage.
Question 5 of 9
The patient develops a low-grade fever 18 hours post-operatively and has diminished breath sounds. Which of the following actions is most appropriate for the nurse to take to prevent complications? i.Administer antibiotics iv.Decrease fluid intake ii.Encourage coughing and deepbreathing v.Ambulate patient as ordered iii.Administer acetaminophen (Tylenol)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 2 and 5. Diminished breath sounds indicate possible atelectasis or pneumonia post-operatively, making coughing and deep breathing (2) and ambulation (5) crucial to prevent complications. Decreasing fluid intake (iv) can lead to dehydration, worsening the situation. Administering antibiotics (i) without further assessment may not be necessary at this point. Acetaminophen (iii) can help with fever but does not address the underlying respiratory issue.
Question 6 of 9
A patient has hand-foot syndrome related to his sickle cell anemia. What findings does the nurse expect to see as the patient is assessed?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Purplish discoloration of hands and feet. Hand-foot syndrome in sickle cell anemia is characterized by pain, swelling, and purplish discoloration of the hands and feet due to vaso-occlusive crisis. Unequal growth of fingers and toes (A), webbing between fingers and toes (C), and deformities of wrists and ankles (D) are not typical findings associated with hand-foot syndrome in sickle cell anemia.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse is discharging a client from the hospital. When should discharge planning be initiated?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Discharge planning should start at admission to ensure comprehensive preparation. 2. Early planning allows for assessment of needs and coordination of resources. 3. It promotes continuity of care and reduces risks of readmission. 4. Options A, C, and D are incorrect as they miss the opportunity for proactive planning.
Question 8 of 9
During a routine checkup, the nurse assesses a client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) for signs and symptoms of cancer. What is the common AIDS-related cancer?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Kaposi’s sarcoma. In AIDS patients, Kaposi’s sarcoma is a common cancer caused by human herpesvirus 8. It presents as purple or brown skin lesions. Squamous cell carcinoma (A), leukemia (B), and multiple myeloma (C) are not commonly associated with AIDS. Squamous cell carcinoma is linked to sun exposure, leukemia originates in the bone marrow, and multiple myeloma is a cancer of plasma cells. Therefore, the correct answer is D due to its strong association with AIDS.
Question 9 of 9
A patient presents to the emergency department following a motor vehicle crash and suffers a right femur fracture. The leg is stabilized in a full leg cast. Otherwise, the patient has no other major injuries, is in good health, and reports only moderate discomfort. Which is the most pertinent nursing diagnosis the nurse will include in the plan of care?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Acute pain. This is the most pertinent nursing diagnosis because the patient has a right femur fracture and reports moderate discomfort. The priority is to address the acute pain associated with the fracture. Posttrauma syndrome (A) typically involves a broader range of emotional and psychological responses beyond just moderate discomfort. Constipation (B) is not the priority in this case, as it is not directly related to the patient's current condition. Anxiety (D) may be present but addressing the acute pain takes precedence in this situation to ensure the patient's comfort and well-being.