As part of a community program on crisis prevention, a nurse is describing the phases of crisis. Which of the following would the nurse identify as occurring first?

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Mental Health Final ATI Questions

Question 1 of 9

As part of a community program on crisis prevention, a nurse is describing the phases of crisis. Which of the following would the nurse identify as occurring first?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Problem stimulating usual problem solving. In crisis intervention, the first phase is when the individual encounters a problem that triggers their usual problem-solving skills. This initial phase involves recognizing the crisis and attempting to assess and address the problem. This sets the stage for further crisis intervention strategies. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect: B: Trial and error attempts to alleviate problem - This typically occurs after the crisis has been recognized and initial problem-solving attempts have been made. C: Automatic relief behaviors take over - This is more likely to be a coping mechanism employed after the crisis has escalated and the individual is seeking immediate relief. D: Serious personality disorganization - This usually occurs in the later stages of a crisis when the individual's ability to cope is severely compromised.

Question 2 of 9

While working with an older male patient, the nurse begins to think that the patient reminds the nurse of her grandfather and responds as if she was the granddaughter. The nurse is developing which of the following?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Countertransference. Countertransference occurs when the nurse projects their own feelings, experiences, or attitudes onto the patient, based on personal issues or past relationships. In this scenario, the nurse is reacting to the patient as if he was her grandfather, indicating a personal connection influencing her behavior. Incorrect choices: A: Empathy is the ability to understand and share the feelings of another. While empathy is important in nursing, it does not involve projecting personal experiences onto the patient. B: Transference refers to the patient projecting feelings onto the nurse based on past experiences. It is the opposite of countertransference. D: Modeling involves observing and imitating the behavior of others, which is not the case in this scenario.

Question 3 of 9

A male patient calls to tell the nurse that his monthly lithium level is 1.7 mEq/L. Which nursing intervention will the nurse implement initially?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because a lithium level of 1.7 mEq/L is above the therapeutic range (0.6-1.2 mEq/L), indicating potential toxicity. Instructing the patient to hold the next dose and contact the prescriber is the initial action to prevent further toxicity and adjust the medication regimen. Choice A is incorrect because the level is above the therapeutic range. Choice C is unnecessary unless the patient is experiencing severe symptoms. Choice D is not the initial intervention; holding the next dose is more immediate.

Question 4 of 9

A nurse is talking with the husband of a female client diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease. During the conversation, the husband tells the nurse that she often begins to scream and curse for no apparent reason. The nurse interprets this as which of the following?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypervocalization. In Alzheimer's disease, individuals may exhibit increased vocalization, including screaming and cursing, due to various factors such as confusion, frustration, or agitation. This behavior is known as hypervocalization. Choice A, hypersexuality, refers to inappropriate sexual behavior, not vocalization. Choice B, disinhibition, involves lack of restraint in behaviors, not specifically vocalization. Choice D, apathy, refers to lack of interest or emotion, not excessive vocalization. Therefore, the most appropriate interpretation in this scenario is hypervocalization due to Alzheimer's disease.

Question 5 of 9

A nurse is working as part of an interdisciplinary treatment team caring for patients with psychiatric disorders. Based on the nurse's understanding of cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) and its limitations cited by critics, the nurse would identify which patient as an inappropriate candidate for CBT?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, a patient diagnosed with schizophrenia. CBT may not be suitable for individuals with severe cognitive impairments like those with schizophrenia. Schizophrenia can affect a person's ability to engage in cognitive processes necessary for CBT, such as reality testing and cognitive restructuring. Patients with schizophrenia may struggle with delusions, hallucinations, and disorganized thinking, making it challenging to benefit from traditional CBT techniques. Substance abuse (A), depression (B), and eating disorders (D) are conditions that have shown to respond well to CBT techniques, making them appropriate candidates for treatment.

Question 6 of 9

As part of a community program on crisis prevention, a nurse is describing the phases of crisis. Which of the following would the nurse identify as occurring first?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Problem stimulating usual problem solving. In crisis intervention, the first phase is when the individual encounters a problem that triggers their usual problem-solving skills. This initial phase involves recognizing the crisis and attempting to assess and address the problem. This sets the stage for further crisis intervention strategies. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect: B: Trial and error attempts to alleviate problem - This typically occurs after the crisis has been recognized and initial problem-solving attempts have been made. C: Automatic relief behaviors take over - This is more likely to be a coping mechanism employed after the crisis has escalated and the individual is seeking immediate relief. D: Serious personality disorganization - This usually occurs in the later stages of a crisis when the individual's ability to cope is severely compromised.

Question 7 of 9

A client has been prescribed naltrexone (Trexan) for treatment of alcohol dependence. The nurse has explained the drug's purpose to the client. The nurse determines that the client has understood the instructions when the client identifies which of the following about the drug?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Reduces the appeal of alcohol. Naltrexone is an opioid antagonist that works by blocking the euphoric effects of alcohol, reducing cravings, and decreasing the desire to drink. By choosing this answer, the client demonstrates an understanding of naltrexone's mechanism of action in treating alcohol dependence. A: Causes itching if alcohol is consumed - This statement is incorrect. Naltrexone does not cause itching if alcohol is consumed. It works by blocking opioid receptors, not by producing physical side effects like itching. B: Produces the euphoria of alcohol - This statement is incorrect. Naltrexone actually blocks the euphoric effects of alcohol, making it less appealing and reducing the desire to drink. D: Improves appetite and nutritional status - This statement is incorrect. Naltrexone does not directly affect appetite or nutritional status. Its primary purpose is to help with alcohol dependence by reducing cravings and the pleasure associated with drinking.

Question 8 of 9

A client with erectile dysfunction who is prescribed sildenafil asks the nurse, 'When should I take the medication?' Which response by the nurse would be most appropriate?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Take it about ½ to 2 hours before you have sexual activity." This is the most appropriate response because sildenafil takes about 30 minutes to 1 hour to start working, with peak effectiveness around 1 to 2 hours after ingestion. Taking it too early or too late can affect its efficacy. Choice A is incorrect as timing should be based on sexual activity, not just morning routine. Choice C is incorrect as 5 minutes is too short for sildenafil to take effect. Choice D is incorrect as taking it at night may not align with the intended purpose of improving erectile function during sexual activity.

Question 9 of 9

The nurse states to a client on an inpatient unit,"Tell me what's been on your mind." Which describes the purpose of this therapeutic communication technique?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: To have the client choose the topic of the conversation. By asking the client to share what's on their mind, the nurse is allowing the client to lead the discussion and express their concerns or thoughts. This empowers the client to direct the conversation towards what is most important to them, promoting client-centered care and fostering a sense of autonomy. Choice B is incorrect because the purpose is not to present new ideas but to encourage the client to share their own thoughts. Choice C is incorrect as conveying interest is important in therapeutic communication but not the primary purpose of this specific technique. Choice D is incorrect as the purpose is not specifically to provide time for reflection but to allow the client to initiate the conversation.

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