As an individual, which of the following is an INTERNAL variable affecting health status, belief, or practices

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: A - Genetics Rationale: 1. Genetics refer to an individual's inherited traits which can influence health conditions and predispositions. 2. Genetic factors can impact an individual's susceptibility to certain diseases and conditions. 3. Health beliefs and practices may be influenced by knowledge of one's genetic predispositions. 4. Family structure, socioeconomic status, and living situation are external variables that may influence health but are not inherent to the individual like genetics.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Inductive process. Qualitative research typically involves an inductive approach, where researchers gather data, analyze patterns, and develop theories or hypotheses based on the observed data. This allows for exploration and discovery of new insights. A) Deductive process is not a characteristic of qualitative research, as deductive reasoning involves starting with a hypothesis and testing it with data. B) Fixed research design is not common in qualitative research, which often uses flexible and adaptive designs to accommodate emergent findings. C) Control over the context is not a key characteristic of qualitative research, as it often involves studying real-world settings with natural contexts rather than controlled environments. In summary, the inductive process is a key characteristic of qualitative research as it allows for exploration and theory development based on observed data, distinguishing it from deductive approaches, fixed designs, and controlled contexts.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Amoxicillin. Amoxicillin is the first-line treatment for GAS pharyngitis due to its effectiveness against Streptococcus bacteria. It is a penicillin-class antibiotic recommended by guidelines. Azithromycin is an alternative for patients allergic to penicillin. Cephalexin is not the first-line choice for GAS. Clindamycin is reserved for patients allergic to both penicillin and macrolides.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: osteoporosis. Osteoporosis is a condition characterized by weakened bones, making individuals more susceptible to fractures, especially with minor trauma or falls. In the context of a patient prone to fractures, nurses should be particularly cautious about fall prevention. A: The aging process alone does not necessarily lead to an increased risk of fractures. While aging is a risk factor for osteoporosis, it is not the direct cause of fractures in this case. C: Changes in vision can contribute to an increased risk of falls, but it is not the primary reason for the patient being prone to fractures in this scenario. D: Hematologic conditions may affect bone health, but they are not typically the primary cause of increased fracture risk in patients.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: unfreezing. Unfreezing is the initial stage in Lewin's planned change model where individuals become open to change by recognizing the need for it. During this stage, the nurse identifies the need for change, plans strategies to implement it, and works on overcoming resistance by ensuring that the driving forces (reasons for change) outweigh the restraining forces (barriers to change). Refreezing (A) is the final stage where the changes are reinforced and integrated into the organization. Movement (B) is the stage where actual change occurs, and in activism (D) is not a recognized stage in Lewin's model.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Diabetes insipidus. This condition is characterized by excessive thirst, large volumes of dilute urine, low urine osmolality, hypernatremia, and elevated serum osmolality. The underlying cause is a deficiency in or insensitivity to antidiuretic hormone (ADH), leading to the inability of the kidneys to concentrate urine properly. Hyperthyroidism (choice A) and hypothyroidism (choice B) do not directly affect urine concentration. While diabetes mellitus (choice C) can also present with polyuria and polydipsia, it would typically have high urine osmolality due to the presence of glucose. Therefore, diabetes insipidus is the most likely endocrine disorder responsible for these specific symptoms.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administering proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) concomitantly. Aspirin and clopidogrel can increase the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. PPIs help reduce this risk by decreasing gastric acid production. Therefore, administering PPIs with dual antiplatelet therapy is essential for preventing bleeding complications. Encouraging increased fluid intake (B) may not directly address the risk of bleeding. Monitoring for signs of thrombocytopenia (C) is important but may not directly prevent bleeding in this case. Providing education on fall prevention measures (D) is important for overall safety but does not directly address bleeding risks associated with dual antiplatelet therapy.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: A - sterile clamps Rationale: 1. **Immediate action**: Sterile clamps are essential to clamp the chest tube to prevent air from entering the pleural space. 2. **Prevent lung collapse**: Clamping the tube will prevent lung collapse and maintain positive pressure in the pleural space. 3. **Buy time**: By clamping the tube, you buy time to properly reattach the tube or secure it with a new connection. 4. **Safety**: Sterile clamps are a quick and effective solution to prevent a potentially life-threatening situation. Summary of other choices: B: Sterile dressing - Not the first priority as the immediate concern is preventing air from entering the pleural space. C: Another chest tube - Not necessary initially as clamping can buy time to reattach the disconnected tube. D: A bottle of sterile water - Not needed for emergency management of a disconnected chest tube.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Precipitous labor is characterized by rapid cervical dilation and descent of the fetal presenting part, leading to a shortened labor duration of less than 3 hours. This rapid progression can increase the risk of maternal complications, such as postpartum hemorrhage. Postpartum hemorrhage is defined as excessive bleeding of more than 500 ml after vaginal delivery or more than 1000 ml after cesarean delivery. The rapid delivery in precipitous labor can result in inadequate uterine contractions after delivery, leading to poor uterine tone and potential postpartum hemorrhage due to uterine atony. Therefore, the nurse should anticipate postpartum hemorrhage as a potential maternal complication in a woman experiencing precipitous labor.