As an example of specific human parasites one can name Plasmodium falciparum, human pinworm and some others. The source of parasite invasion is always a human. Such specific human parasites cause the diseases that are called:

Questions 80

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Microbiology Chapter 13 Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

As an example of specific human parasites one can name Plasmodium falciparum, human pinworm and some others. The source of parasite invasion is always a human. Such specific human parasites cause the diseases that are called:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Anthroponoses. This term refers to diseases caused by specific human parasites that are transmitted directly from human to human. In this case, the source of parasite invasion is always a human host. This term specifically describes diseases caused by parasites that exclusively infect humans. Choice B: Zoonoses refers to diseases that can be transmitted from animals to humans. Choice C: Anthropozoonoses is a combination of zoonoses and anthroponoses, which is not applicable in this scenario. Choice D: Infections is a general term that does not specify the source or type of parasite causing the disease.

Question 2 of 9

A patient with severe abdominal pain and vomiting had a blood culture that revealed Gram-negative rods producing gas. What is the most likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Salmonella enteritidis. In this case, the presence of Gram-negative rods producing gas in the blood culture indicates a likelihood of Salmonella infection, as it is a common cause of severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and gas production. Salmonella enteritidis is a known pathogen that can cause gastroenteritis and systemic infections. Escherichia coli (choice A) can also cause similar symptoms, but it is less likely to produce gas in blood culture. Clostridium perfringens (choice C) typically causes food poisoning with rapid onset and less likely to be isolated from blood cultures. Campylobacter jejuni (choice D) is associated with gastroenteritis but is less likely to cause systemic infections with gas-producing Gram-negative rods in blood culture.

Question 3 of 9

For Parvovirus B19 it is true that:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for choice A being correct: 1. Parvovirus B19 is a single-stranded DNA (ssDNA) virus. 2. The prefix "parvo-" indicates small size, characteristic of ssDNA viruses. 3. ssDNA viruses replicate in the host cell by converting their ssDNA genome into double-stranded DNA (dsDNA). 4. Therefore, the correct answer is A: Its genome consists of dsDNA. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: B: Parvovirus B19 is a non-enveloped virus, making choice B incorrect. C: Parvovirus B19 has a linear ssDNA genome, not segmented, making choice C incorrect. D: Parvovirus B19 has two structural proteins - VP1 and VP2, making choice D incorrect.

Question 4 of 9

Malaria is caused by a:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: protozoan. Malaria is caused by Plasmodium parasites transmitted through the bite of infected female Anopheles mosquitoes. These parasites belong to the protozoa kingdom, not viruses (choice A), bacteria (choice B), or helminths (choice C). Protozoa have complex life cycles involving both mosquito and human hosts, leading to the development of malaria in humans. Other choices are incorrect as they do not align with the known etiology and characteristics of malaria.

Question 5 of 9

Young man is hospitalized in pulmonology with complaints of dry cough, fatigue and suffocations. The anamnesis and the lab tests lead to pneumocystis pneumonia. The CD4+ cells are less than 200/mm3. What test you will order:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: For HIV. Pneumocystis pneumonia in a young man with CD4+ cells less than 200/mm3 is highly suggestive of HIV infection. HIV weakens the immune system, leading to opportunistic infections like pneumocystis pneumonia. Testing for HIV is crucial for diagnosis and appropriate management. Explanation for other choices: A: Testing for ureaplasma urealyticum is not indicated in this case as the symptoms and CD4+ cell count point towards an HIV-related infection. C: Testing for Treponema pallidum (syphilis) is not relevant in the context of a young man with pneumocystis pneumonia and low CD4+ cell count. D: Testing for Neisseria gonorrhoea is not appropriate in this scenario as the symptoms and CD4+ cell count suggest an underlying HIV infection rather than a bacterial sexually transmitted infection.

Question 6 of 9

N. Meningitidis grows on

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Chocolate agar. Neisseria meningitidis is a fastidious organism that requires enriched media for growth. Chocolate agar contains heat-treated blood that provides essential nutrients for the growth of N. meningitidis. The other choices, A: Levine agar, B: Lowenstein-Jensen agar, and C: TCBS agar, do not provide the specific nutrients required for the growth of N. meningitidis. Therefore, only choice D, Chocolate agar, supports the growth of N. meningitidis due to its enriched composition.

Question 7 of 9

For cultivation of Brucella, pure cultures should be incubated in CO2 enriched atmosphere. What type of breathing is typical for Brucella?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Capnophilic. Brucella requires a CO2 enriched atmosphere for cultivation, making it capnophilic. This is because Brucella is a microaerophilic bacterium that thrives in low oxygen conditions and elevated CO2 levels. Choice B (Facultative anaerobic) and D (Obligate aerobic) are incorrect as Brucella does not grow well under aerobic conditions. Choice C (Obligate anaerobic) is also incorrect as Brucella can grow in the presence of oxygen, although it prefers low oxygen environments.

Question 8 of 9

Coxsackie Viruses can cause:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Herpangina. Coxsackie Viruses are known to cause Herpangina, which is characterized by sore throat, fever, and painful blisters in the mouth and throat. This is because Coxsackie Viruses typically infect the throat and mouth mucosa. Hemorrhagic conjunctivitis (A) is commonly caused by Adenoviruses, not Coxsackie Viruses. Mumps (C) is caused by the Mumps virus, a completely different virus. Poliomyelitis (D) is caused by the Poliovirus, not Coxsackie Viruses. Therefore, the correct answer is B as it aligns with the known pathogenicity of Coxsackie Viruses.

Question 9 of 9

A 9 y.o. child has been taking antibiotics on account of bronchopneumonia for a long time. There appeared pain and burning in the area of mucous membrane of his lips and tongue. Objectively: mucous membrane of lips and tongue has caseous and grey plaques that can be easily removed by a spatula leaving hyperemia foci on their spot. Microscopic examination of the plaques revealed mycelium. What is the most probable diagnosis?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The most probable diagnosis is A: Candidous cheilitis. Candidous cheilitis is a fungal infection caused by Candida species. In this case, the presence of mycelium on the plaques indicates a fungal infection. The symptoms of pain, burning, and grey plaques that can be easily removed leaving hyperemia are typical for Candidous cheilitis. Choice B (Exfoliative cheilitis) is characterized by scaling and peeling of the lips, not plaques with mycelium. Choice C (Leukoplakia) is a precancerous condition causing white plaques that cannot be easily removed. Choice D (Contactant allergic cheilitis) is an allergic reaction causing inflammation, not fungal plaques.

Access More Questions!

ATI RN Basic


$89/ 30 days

ATI RN Premium


$150/ 90 days