ATI RN
ATI Leadership Proctored Exam 2019 Questions
Question 1 of 5
As a new nurse at a healthcare organization offering a nurse residency program, what would benefit you the most?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: As a new nurse joining a nurse residency program, the most beneficial action would be to establish professional goals based on your clinical knowledge. Setting clear goals allows you to focus on your learning needs, competency development, and guidance from your clinical preceptor. This proactive approach helps you maximize your learning opportunities, shape your professional growth, and enhance your skills as a novice nurse. Choice A is incorrect because avoiding challenging patient assignments may hinder your learning and skill development. Choice B is incorrect as while the clinical preceptor is essential, solely relying on them without personal professional goals may limit your growth. Choice D is incorrect because engaging in evidence-based practice projects immediately may be overwhelming for a new nurse without first establishing foundational goals.
Question 2 of 5
When is the first opportunity for a manager to reduce turnover?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The manager's first opportunity to reduce turnover occurs after three months of employment. During this period, the manager can assess the employee's performance, engagement, and fit within the organization. It allows the manager to address any concerns, provide support, and intervene early to prevent turnover. Waiting until after a certain tenure period might be too late to effectively mitigate turnover risk, as issues could have already escalated. Therefore, the three-month mark is a critical point for managers to proactively manage turnover. Choices A and B are incorrect because they do not allow sufficient time for the manager to evaluate the employee and take proactive measures to reduce turnover. Choice D is incorrect as it is too vague and does not provide a specific actionable timeframe for addressing turnover concerns.
Question 3 of 5
What is the process of helping an employee to improve performance called?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Coaching. Coaching involves providing guidance and support to help an employee enhance their performance. It focuses on developing skills, addressing weaknesses, and achieving professional growth. Mentoring (choice C) involves guiding and nurturing a less experienced individual. Peer reviewing (choice D) is when colleagues evaluate the performance of their peers. Disciplining (choice B) refers to taking corrective actions in response to policy violations or performance issues.
Question 4 of 5
After her evaluation, a staff nurse exclaims: 'I'm not sure if my manager knows much about my performance, really. He only had three specific examples to give me, two good performance examples and one to work on, and they all happened in the last month. I don't feel like he can see the whole picture.' What kind of performance appraisal rating does this statement exemplify?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The statement exemplifies a recency error. Recency error occurs when a manager assesses an employee's performance primarily based on recent events, rather than considering the entire evaluation period. In this case, the staff nurse feels that her manager focused only on recent examples, leading to an incomplete assessment of her overall performance. Choice B, Leniency error, refers to a rater consistently giving high ratings to all employees regardless of performance, which is not evident in this scenario. Choice C, Halo error, involves allowing one positive attribute of an individual to overshadow other characteristics during appraisal, which is not the case here. Absolute judgment, Choice D, is when a rater evaluates an employee without reference to any specific criteria, which is not reflected in the staff nurse's feedback.
Question 5 of 5
Several factors are considered in the calculation of the amount of FTEs. Which of the following is NOT considered when calculating the FTEs? (EXCEPT)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When calculating the Full-Time Equivalents (FTEs), factors such as the hours of work for the staff for two weeks, average daily census, and types of patients are considered. However, the hours of care provided are not typically included in the calculation of FTEs. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Choice B, ancillary staff, can impact FTE calculations as they contribute to the overall workload. Choice C, procedures to be done, can also influence FTE calculations, especially if they affect staffing requirements. Choice D, types of patients, play a role in determining the level of care needed and subsequently impact FTE calculations.