Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tonic. During the tonic stage of eclampsia, the muscles go into a prolonged contraction leading to an arched back and tightly clenched teeth. This is due to sustained muscle rigidity. In contrast, the clonic stage involves rhythmic muscle contractions and relaxations, not sustained rigidity. The premonitory stage is characterized by warning signs like headaches and visual disturbances, not specific physical postures. Coma is a severe stage of unconsciousness, not associated with specific physical postures or muscle rigidity seen in the tonic stage of eclampsia.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Placental insufficiency. Placental insufficiency can lead to decreased oxygen and nutrient supply to the fetus, causing fetal distress during labor. This can result in abnormal fetal heart rate patterns and potential complications. A: Umbilical cord prolapse can also cause fetal distress but is less common than placental insufficiency. B: Uterine rupture is a serious complication but typically presents with maternal symptoms rather than fetal distress. D: Fetal position can impact labor progress but is not typically the primary cause of fetal distress.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Uterine apoplexy is the sudden rupture of blood vessels in the uterus, leading to severe hemorrhage. Placental abruption is the most likely cause due to the separation of the placenta from the uterine wall, resulting in bleeding. Incidental hemorrhage is not sudden or severe. Multiple pregnancy may increase the risk but doesn't directly cause uterine apoplexy. Placenta previa involves the placenta covering the cervix, leading to bleeding but not necessarily uterine rupture. Therefore, the correct answer is B.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lipoma. A lipoma is a common benign tumor made of fat cells. In this case, the patient's presentation of a painless, soft, round, flesh-colored lump with smooth borders is consistent with a lipoma. The absence of symptoms like pain, erythema, or tenderness further supports this diagnosis. Lipomas are usually non-tender to palpation and can grow to a significant size. The other choices (A, C, D) are not the correct answers because they do not align with the characteristics described in the patient's presentation. Neurolemma is associated with nerve sheath tumors, hemangioma with blood vessel tumors, and lymphangioma with lymphatic vessel tumors, none of which match the clinical findings in this case.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: TRUE. Uterine atony is the most common cause of immediate postpartum hemorrhage due to inadequate uterine contraction to control bleeding. This is supported by research and clinical evidence. Trauma to the genital tract is a less common cause and usually leads to delayed hemorrhage. Choice B is incorrect as uterine atony is a well-documented primary cause. Choice C is incorrect as uterine atony is consistently the leading cause. Choice D is incorrect as the cause of immediate postpartum hemorrhage is clear, with uterine atony being the most common culprit.