ATI RN
Pharmacology and the Nursing Process 10th Edition Test Bank Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 9
Appropriate nursing interventions for J.E. would be
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it addresses the specific nursing interventions needed for a patient with head injuries like J.E. Skin care and repositioning every 2 hours help prevent pressure ulcers. Maintaining extremity alignment prevents contractures. Respiratory exercises aid in lung expansion and prevent complications. The other choices are incorrect because they either lack essential interventions (B) or include unnecessary or inappropriate interventions (C, D). Teaching the use of an overhead trapeze is not necessary for head injuries, and intermittent positive pressure breathing therapy may not be indicated. Choice A provides a comprehensive and targeted approach to address the specific needs of a patient with head injuries.
Question 2 of 9
After a 3- month trail of dietary therapy, a client with type2 diabetes mellitus still has blood glucose levels above 180 mg/dl. The physician adds glyburide (DiaBeta), 2.5 mg P.O. daily, to the treatment regimen. The nurse should instruct the client to take glyburide:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 30 minutes before breakfast. Glyburide is a sulfonylurea medication that stimulates insulin release from the pancreas, enhancing glucose uptake. Taking it before breakfast ensures peak insulin levels coincide with the postprandial glucose spike, aiding in glucose control throughout the day. Option B is incorrect as taking it after dinner may lead to hypoglycemia during sleep. Option C is incorrect as midmorning is not an optimal time for a sulfonylurea dose. Option D is incorrect as taking it at bedtime may also increase the risk of hypoglycemia overnight.
Question 3 of 9
A client with lung cancer develops Homer’s when the tumor invades the ribs and affects the sympathetic nerve ganglia. When assessing for signs and symptoms of this syndrome, the nurse should note:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Miosis, partial eyelid ptosis, and anhidrosis on the affected side of the face. This is indicative of Horner's syndrome, which occurs due to the disruption of sympathetic nerve supply. Miosis (constricted pupil), ptosis (drooping eyelid), and anhidrosis (lack of sweating) are classic signs of Horner's syndrome. These symptoms occur when the tumor invades the ribs and affects the sympathetic nerve ganglia. Summary of other choices: B: Chest pain, dyspnea, cough, weight loss, and fever are more commonly associated with lung cancer but not specific to Horner's syndrome. C: Arm and shoulder pain and atrophy of arm and hand muscles are not typical signs of Horner's syndrome. D: Hoarseness and dysphagia are more common symptoms of compression of the recurrent laryngeal nerve, not Horner's syndrome.
Question 4 of 9
For a client diagnosed with idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP), which nursing intervention is appropriate?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administering platelets, as ordered to maintain an adequate platelet count. In ITP, the client has low platelet count leading to risk of bleeding. Administering platelets helps raise platelet levels and prevent bleeding complications. Teaching coughing and deep-breathing techniques (A) is important for preventing respiratory infections but not directly related to ITP. Giving aspirin (C) is contraindicated as it can further decrease platelet count. Administering stool softeners (D) is important for preventing straining but not specific to managing ITP.
Question 5 of 9
Nurse Amy teaches a group of nursing students about the factors that cuses biliary cirrhosis. Which factor is associated with the condition?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: chronic biliary inflammation or obstruction. Biliary cirrhosis is a condition characterized by scarring of the liver due to long-term damage to the bile ducts. Chronic biliary inflammation or obstruction can lead to the build-up of bile in the liver, causing damage over time. Acute viral hepatitis (choice A) typically does not directly cause biliary cirrhosis. Alcohol hepatotoxicity (choice B) is more commonly associated with alcoholic liver disease rather than biliary cirrhosis. Hepatic failure with prolonged venous hepatic congestion (choice D) may lead to liver cirrhosis, but it is not specific to biliary cirrhosis.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the ff conditions are more likely to develop in a client who is relatively immobile for the rest of his or her life? Choose all that apply
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bladder infection. Immobility can lead to urinary stasis, causing bacteria to multiply in the bladder, leading to a higher risk of bladder infections. B: Constipation can also occur due to immobility, but it is not directly related to the urinary system. C: Calculus formation is more related to factors like diet and hydration, not immobility. D: Bladder inflammation can be a result of infection but is not as directly linked to immobility as bladder infections.
Question 7 of 9
If a client with increased pressure (ICP) demonstrates decorticate posturing, the nurse will observe:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because decorticate posturing is characterized by flexion of both upper and lower extremities. This occurs due to damage to the cerebral hemispheres, resulting in abnormal muscle contractions. Choice B describes decerebrate posturing, which is associated with extension of elbows and knees. Choice C is incorrect as it describes abnormal posturing seen in other conditions. Choice D is also incorrect as it describes a different type of abnormal posturing.
Question 8 of 9
A classic full blown AIDS case is identified by clinical manifestations such as:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Classic full-blown AIDS presents with tumors and opportunistic infections due to severe immune system suppression. Step 2: These manifestations occur when CD4 cell count drops significantly, leading to inability to fight infections. Step 3: Persistent generalized lymphadenopathy (Choice A) can be seen in early HIV infection, not necessarily in full-blown AIDS. Step 4: Sudden weight loss, fever, and malaise (Choice B) are non-specific symptoms seen in various conditions, not specific to AIDS. Step 5: Fever, weight loss, night sweats, and diarrhea (Choice D) are common symptoms but lack the specificity of tumors and opportunistic infections seen in classic full-blown AIDS.
Question 9 of 9
Another girl was bitten by a poisonous snake. All of the following are true except
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because exercising the bitten extremity can increase the spread of the venom. Choice B is correct as poisonous snake bites typically leave two fang marks. Choice C is correct as immediate severe pain and swelling are common symptoms of a poisonous snake bite. Choice D is incorrect as a tourniquet should not be used for snake bites as it can lead to complications such as tissue damage and increased risk of infection.