Antihistamines, phenothiazines, tricyclic antidepressants, and antiparkinsonian agents have a common property that

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Central Nervous System Stimulants and Related Drugs NCLEX Style Questions Questions

Question 1 of 5

Antihistamines, phenothiazines, tricyclic antidepressants, and antiparkinsonian agents have a common property that

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In this question, the correct answer is C) All have some atropine-like action. Antihistamines, phenothiazines, tricyclic antidepressants, and antiparkinsonian agents all share the common property of having some atropine-like action, which refers to their ability to block acetylcholine receptors. This leads to various side effects such as dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, and urinary retention. Option A) All produce CNS stimulation is incorrect because while some of these drugs may have stimulant effects, not all of them produce CNS stimulation. Phenothiazines, for example, are known for their sedative effects. Option B) All have adrenergic action is incorrect because these drugs do not all act directly on adrenergic receptors. Each drug class has different mechanisms of action. Option D) All have long plasma half-life is incorrect because the half-life of these drugs varies within and between classes. It is not a common property shared by all of them. Understanding these common properties of drug classes is crucial for nurses and healthcare professionals when administering medications, as it helps in anticipating potential side effects and drug interactions. It is essential for safe and effective patient care to have a solid grasp of pharmacology principles.

Question 2 of 5

What is the mechanism of action of clonidine?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B) α2 agonist. Clonidine is a centrally acting α2 adrenergic receptor agonist. It acts on the presynaptic α2 receptors in the brain, leading to a decrease in sympathetic outflow, which results in reduced peripheral resistance, heart rate, and blood pressure. Option A) α1 antagonist is incorrect because clonidine does not antagonize α1 receptors. It primarily targets α2 receptors. Option C) β1 agonist is incorrect because clonidine does not directly stimulate β1 adrenergic receptors. Its main mechanism of action is through α2 receptor activation. Option D) β1 antagonist is incorrect because clonidine does not act on β1 adrenergic receptors. Its effects are primarily mediated through the activation of α2 receptors. Educational context: Understanding the mechanism of action of clonidine is crucial for nursing practice, especially in managing conditions like hypertension, ADHD, and opioid withdrawal. Knowing that clonidine is an α2 agonist helps nurses comprehend how it works to reduce sympathetic outflow and manage these conditions effectively. This knowledge is essential for safe medication administration and patient education regarding the expected effects and possible side effects of clonidine.

Question 3 of 5

The rate at which inhalational anaesthetic passes into tissues depends on

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In the context of inhalational anesthesia, the rate at which the anesthetic passes into tissues is crucial for its effectiveness. The correct answer, D) All of the above, is the most comprehensive choice because all the options play a role in determining this rate. A) Tissue: Blood partition coefficient is important because it indicates how readily the anesthetic moves from the blood into tissues. A higher partition coefficient means more anesthetic will be taken up by tissues. B) The rate at which gas is delivered to the tissues matters as well. If the delivery rate is too slow, the anesthetic may not reach effective concentrations in tissues in a timely manner. C) The partial pressure of the gas in the arterial blood is significant because it determines the concentration gradient driving the movement of the anesthetic into tissues. A higher partial pressure in the blood will lead to more rapid uptake by tissues. Educationally, understanding these factors is essential for nurses and healthcare providers administering anesthesia. It ensures safe and effective delivery of anesthesia, preventing under or overdosing, and optimizing patient outcomes. Mastery of these concepts is vital for passing the NCLEX and for providing competent patient care in clinical practice.

Question 4 of 5

Which of the following is the most trouble-shooter in spinal anaesthesia?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In spinal anesthesia, the most common troubleshooting issue is a sympathetic block. This occurs when local anesthetics spread to the sympathetic nerves, causing hypotension due to vasodilation and decreased venous return. By identifying and addressing a sympathetic block promptly, the anesthetist can prevent complications such as hypotension, bradycardia, and inadequate perfusion to vital organs. Option A is correct because addressing a sympathetic block can help manage these cardiovascular effects and stabilize the patient's hemodynamics during spinal anesthesia. Options B, C, and D are incorrect because a parasympathetic block is not a common issue in spinal anesthesia, contracted intestines are not a primary concern, and paralyzed intercostal muscles would not lead to significant clinical problems during spinal anesthesia. Educationally, understanding the potential complications and troubleshooting techniques in spinal anesthesia is crucial for healthcare providers administering this type of anesthesia. By recognizing and addressing issues promptly, healthcare providers can ensure patient safety and optimal outcomes during surgical procedures. It is essential for nurses, anesthetists, and other healthcare professionals to be well-versed in the management of spinal anesthesia-related complications to provide high-quality patient care.

Question 5 of 5

Following are examples of generalized seizures, except

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In this question, the correct answer is C) Simple partial seizures. Simple partial seizures, also known as focal seizures, differ from generalized seizures in that they originate in a specific area of the brain and do not involve the entire brain at once. They can cause localized symptoms like muscle jerking or sensory changes, but they do not lead to loss of consciousness or the widespread convulsions seen in generalized seizures. A) Tonic-clonic seizures (formerly known as grand mal seizures) involve both tonic (muscle stiffness) and clonic (rhythmic jerking) phases, affecting the entire brain and often leading to loss of consciousness. B) Infantile spasms are a type of seizure disorder that typically occurs in infancy and involves brief, sudden movements or spasms of the body or limbs. D) Atonic seizures, also called drop attacks, result in a sudden loss of muscle tone and can cause falls or head nods due to a temporary loss of postural control. Educationally, understanding the different types of seizures is crucial for healthcare professionals, especially when managing patients with seizure disorders. Recognizing the characteristics of each seizure type is essential for accurate diagnosis, appropriate treatment selection, and providing effective patient care. This knowledge is particularly pertinent for nurses, nurse practitioners, and other healthcare providers who may encounter patients experiencing seizures in various healthcare settings.

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