Anti-tetanus gamma globulin is produced by hyperimmunization of donors with tetanus anatoxin. What class of immunoglobulins prevails in this preparation?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: IgG. Anti-tetanus gamma globulin is produced by hyperimmunization, leading to a high concentration of specific antibodies, predominantly IgG. IgG is the most abundant immunoglobulin in the blood and provides long-term immunity against tetanus. IgA is mainly found in mucosal areas, not in gamma globulin preparations. IgM is the first antibody produced in response to an infection and is not the prevailing class in this preparation. IgE is associated with allergic reactions and parasitic infections, not with anti-tetanus immunity.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice C (Nystatin) is the correct answer: 1. Nystatin is an antifungal medication specifically effective against Candida infections. 2. Candida is a type of fungus, not a bacteria targeted by penicillins (choice A) or cephalosporins (choice B). 3. Nystatin works by disrupting the fungal cell membrane, leading to its death. 4. Choice D (None of the above) is incorrect as Nystatin is a suitable treatment option for Candida infections.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Rickettsia. Rickettsia is a host-dependent bacterium because it requires living cells of a host organism to survive and replicate. This bacterium is an obligate intracellular pathogen, meaning it cannot grow outside of a host cell. A: Mycoplasma and B: Ureaplasma are not host-dependent as they can grow and reproduce in cell-free environments due to possessing their own unique cell wall structures. D: Micrococcus is a free-living bacterium that can survive and reproduce independently without relying on a host organism.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Cell cultures. Rotavirus diagnosis involves detecting viral antigens in stool samples using cell cultures. Cell cultures allow for the replication of the virus, facilitating its identification. A: Egg inoculation and B: Sensitive laboratory animals are not commonly used for Rotavirus diagnosis due to ethical concerns and practical limitations. C: Ascoli test is used for detecting specific proteins in serum, not for Rotavirus detection in stool samples. In summary, cell cultures are the most appropriate method for laboratory diagnosis of Rotavirus infection due to their ability to support viral replication and antigen detection.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the above. The cytoplasmic membrane of prokaryotes consists of phospholipids which form a lipid bilayer, providing structure and selective permeability. Proteins are embedded in this membrane, serving various functions like transport and signaling. Carbohydrates may also be present on the surface for cell recognition. Therefore, all three components (phospholipids, proteins, and carbohydrates) are essential parts of the prokaryotic cytoplasmic membrane. Option A, B, and C individually do not fully encapsulate the complexity and composition of the prokaryotic cytoplasmic membrane.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Reverse transcriptase and protease. Reverse transcriptase converts viral RNA into DNA, a crucial step in viral replication. Protease is responsible for cleaving viral polyproteins into functional proteins. Targeting both enzymes disrupts viral replication. Choice A is incorrect as integrase is not a main target in current therapy. Choice C is incorrect because protease is targeted along with reverse transcriptase, not integrase. Choice D is incorrect as targeting viral glycoproteins is not a main strategy in anti-HIV therapy.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Helicobacter pylori is known for producing urease enzyme to neutralize stomach acid. 2. Urease enzyme converts urea into ammonia, buffering the acidic pH. 3. This adaptation allows H. pylori to survive in the acidic environment of the stomach. 4. Salmonella typhi, Escherichia coli, and Shigella flexneri do not produce urease. 5. Therefore, C is the correct answer based on the unique urease-producing capability of H. pylori.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Proteus mirabilis. The patient's symptoms of lower abdominal pain, back pain, frequent/painful urination, and the presence of gram-negative oxidase-positive bacilli forming green mucoid colonies with a specific smell suggest a urinary tract infection caused by Proteus mirabilis. This bacterium is known for causing UTIs and is characterized by its swarming motility and distinctive odor. A: Pseudomonas aeruginosa is commonly associated with hospital-acquired infections but does not typically cause UTIs with the specific characteristics described. B: Mycoplasma pneumonia is a bacterium that causes respiratory infections, not UTIs. C: Str.pyogenes (Streptococcus pyogenes) is a common cause of strep throat and skin infections, not UTIs. D: Helicobacter pylori is associated with gastritis and peptic ulcers, not UTIs.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Mycobacterium leprae. This bacterium is responsible for causing leprosy because it has a unique ability to infect the skin, nerves, and mucous membranes. It is an acid-fast bacillus that multiplies very slowly, leading to a chronic infection. Clostridium botulinum (choice C) causes botulism, Escherichia coli (choice B) causes various gastrointestinal infections, and Staphylococcus aureus (choice D) causes skin infections and other diseases, but none of these bacteria are associated with leprosy.