ATI RN
Microbiology Chapter 11 Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Anti-tetanus gamma globulin is produced by hyperimmunization of donors with tetanus anatoxin. What class of immunoglobulins prevails in this preparation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: IgG. Anti-tetanus gamma globulin is produced by hyperimmunization, leading to a high concentration of specific antibodies, predominantly IgG. IgG is the most abundant immunoglobulin in the blood and provides long-term immunity against tetanus. IgA is mainly found in mucosal areas, not in gamma globulin preparations. IgM is the first antibody produced in response to an infection and is not the prevailing class in this preparation. IgE is associated with allergic reactions and parasitic infections, not with anti-tetanus immunity.
Question 2 of 9
A wound infection culture revealed Gram-positive cocci in clusters. The bacteria were catalase-positive and coagulase-positive. What is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Staphylococcus aureus. This bacterium is characterized by Gram-positive cocci in clusters, catalase-positive, and coagulase-positive. Staphylococcus aureus is a common pathogen causing wound infections due to its ability to produce toxins and enzymes. Staphylococcus epidermidis (B) is catalase-positive but coagulase-negative, making it less likely to cause infections. Streptococcus pyogenes (C) is catalase-negative and typically causes streptococcal infections, not wound infections. Enterococcus faecalis (D) is catalase-negative and typically associated with urinary tract infections. Thus, Staphylococcus aureus is the most likely causative agent based on the given characteristics.
Question 3 of 9
The typhoid fever is produced mainly by:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Salmonella typhi. Typhoid fever is caused by the bacterium Salmonella typhi. This bacterium is responsible for causing the systemic infection that leads to symptoms such as high fever, abdominal pain, and diarrhea. Yersinia pestis (choice A) causes plague, Shigella dysenteriae (choice B) causes dysentery, and Escherichia coli (choice C) can cause various gastrointestinal infections, but not typhoid fever. Salmonella typhi specifically targets the intestines and is transmitted through contaminated food or water. Therefore, choice D is the correct answer for the cause of typhoid fever.
Question 4 of 9
A bacteriological analysis revealed spore-forming, Gram-positive rods in a wound smear. The bacteria were motile and produced gas in nutrient broth. What is the causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Spore-forming, Gram-positive rods: Characteristics shared by Clostridium and Bacillus. 2. Motile and gas production in nutrient broth: Clostridium perfringens is motile and produces gas, distinguishing it from Bacillus species. 3. Clostridium perfringens causes gas gangrene, correlating with gas production. 4. Bacillus anthracis causes anthrax, not related to wound infections. 5. Clostridium tetani causes tetanus, not associated with gas production. 6. Bacillus cereus causes food poisoning, not commonly associated with wound infections. Summary: - A is correct (Clostridium perfringens) due to motility, gas production, and wound infection correlation. - B (Bacillus anthracis) causes anthrax, not wound infections. - C (Clostridium tetani) causes tetanus, not gas production. - D (B
Question 5 of 9
Streptococcus pyogenes releases:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Streptolysin. Streptolysin is a toxin released by Streptococcus pyogenes that causes lysis of red blood cells and contributes to the pathogenicity of the bacteria. Enterotoxin (Choice A) is typically produced by Staphylococcus aureus, not Streptococcus pyogenes. Staphylocoagulase (Choice C) is an enzyme produced by Staphylococcus aureus to promote blood clot formation and is not associated with Streptococcus pyogenes. Therefore, the correct answer is B as Streptolysin is the toxin released by Streptococcus pyogenes.
Question 6 of 9
A blood culture from a patient with sepsis revealed Gram-positive cocci in clusters. The bacteria were catalase-positive and coagulase-negative. What is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Staphylococcus epidermidis. This is supported by the characteristics of Gram-positive cocci in clusters, catalase-positive, and coagulase-negative. Staphylococcus epidermidis fits all these criteria, as it is a common skin commensal that can cause infections in immunocompromised individuals. Staphylococcus aureus (choice B) is catalase-positive and coagulase-positive. Streptococcus pyogenes (choice C) is catalase-negative. Enterococcus faecalis (choice D) is catalase-negative and not typically seen in clusters. Therefore, based on the given information, Staphylococcus epidermidis is the most likely causative agent.
Question 7 of 9
There is/are __________ level(s) of biosafety depending on the organisms handled.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D (4) because biosafety levels range from 1 to 4, each corresponding to the level of containment required when handling different types of organisms. BSL-1 is for low-risk agents, while BSL-4 is for dangerous pathogens. Choice A (1) is incorrect as there are multiple levels, not just one. Choice B (2) and C (3) are incorrect as they do not account for all the levels of biosafety required for handling various organisms. Therefore, D is the correct answer as it encompasses the full range of biosafety levels.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the following best describes bacterial conjugation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because bacterial conjugation involves the transfer of genetic material through a sex pilus from a donor bacterium to a recipient bacterium. This process allows for the exchange of genetic material and can lead to increased genetic diversity within bacterial populations. Option B is incorrect because the uptake of free DNA from the environment is known as transformation, not conjugation. Option C is incorrect as transfer of DNA by bacteriophages is called transduction, not conjugation. Option D is incorrect because binary fission is a form of asexual reproduction in bacteria, not a mechanism for genetic exchange.
Question 9 of 9
A woman hospitalized in the surgical department complains of pain in her lower abdomen and in the small of her back, frequent and painful urination. Urine culture test revealed gram-negative oxidase- positive bacilli that formed green mucoid colonies with specific smell. What causative agent can be suspected?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Proteus mirabilis. The patient's symptoms of lower abdominal pain, back pain, frequent/painful urination, and the presence of gram-negative oxidase-positive bacilli forming green mucoid colonies with a specific smell suggest a urinary tract infection caused by Proteus mirabilis. This bacterium is known for causing UTIs and is characterized by its swarming motility and distinctive odor. A: Pseudomonas aeruginosa is commonly associated with hospital-acquired infections but does not typically cause UTIs with the specific characteristics described. B: Mycoplasma pneumonia is a bacterium that causes respiratory infections, not UTIs. C: Str.pyogenes (Streptococcus pyogenes) is a common cause of strep throat and skin infections, not UTIs. D: Helicobacter pylori is associated with gastritis and peptic ulcers, not UTIs.