Anti-tetanus gamma globulin is produced by hyperimmunization of donors with tetanus anatoxin. What class of immunoglobulins prevails in this preparation?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: IgG. Anti-tetanus gamma globulin is produced by hyperimmunization, leading to a high concentration of specific antibodies, predominantly IgG. IgG is the most abundant immunoglobulin in the blood and provides long-term immunity against tetanus. IgA is mainly found in mucosal areas, not in gamma globulin preparations. IgM is the first antibody produced in response to an infection and is not the prevailing class in this preparation. IgE is associated with allergic reactions and parasitic infections, not with anti-tetanus immunity.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clostridium perfringens. This bacterium fits all the characteristics mentioned: Gram-positive rods with spore formation, motile, and gas production in nutrient broth. Clostridium perfringens is known to cause gas gangrene, which aligns with the gas production in nutrient broth. Bacillus anthracis (B) causes anthrax and does not typically produce gas. Clostridium tetani (C) causes tetanus and does not form spores that are motile. Bacillus cereus (D) is a common cause of food poisoning and does not cause gas gangrene.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: IgM. IgM antibodies are the first type of antibodies produced by the immune system in response to an acute infection, such as Parvovirus B19. During the first 10-14 days of the infection, IgM antibodies are usually detectable in the blood, indicating a recent or ongoing infection. IgG antibodies (choice A) are produced later in the immune response and indicate past infection or immunity. IgA (choice B) is more commonly associated with mucosal immunity and may not be as prominent in the early stages of systemic infections. IgD (choice C) is primarily found on the surface of B cells and is involved in B cell activation but is not typically used as a marker for acute infections like IgM.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Trichomonas vaginalis. Trichomonas vaginalis is a flagellated protozoan parasite commonly found in vaginal infections. The presence of flagellated bacteria in the vaginal discharge stained with Romanovsky-Giemsa method indicates a protozoan infection, ruling out bacterial or viral causes. Choices B, C, and D are not correct as Leishmania donovani causes leishmaniasis, Trypanosoma gambiense causes African sleeping sickness, and Trihomonas hominis is a non-pathogenic flagellate found in the human intestine, not typically associated with vaginal infections.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Streptococcus pneumoniae. The presence of Gram-positive cocci in pairs with a capsule is characteristic of Streptococcus pneumoniae. This bacterium is a common cause of bacterial pharyngitis, leading to a severe sore throat. Staphylococcus aureus (B) does not typically present in pairs or have a capsule. Neisseria meningitidis (C) is a Gram-negative diplococcus, not a Gram-positive cocci. Klebsiella pneumoniae (D) is a Gram-negative bacillus, not a cocci. Thus, based on the characteristics described in the question, Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most likely causative agent.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Blood serum. In suspected cases of brucellosis, blood serum is typically analyzed in a common microbiological laboratory. This is because the bacteria causing brucellosis, Brucella species, can be detected through serological tests in the blood serum. The presence of specific antibodies against Brucella in the serum confirms the diagnosis. Spinal fluid (choice B) would be analyzed in cases of suspected central nervous system infections, which are not typical for brucellosis. Vomit mass (choice C) is not a common sample for microbiological analysis in cases of brucellosis. Urine (choice D) is not the preferred sample for detecting Brucella antibodies; blood serum is the primary choice for serological testing.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Candidiasis. In infants, a thick white deposit on the oral mucosa and tongue is indicative of oral thrush, which is caused by the yeast fungus Candida. Infants are particularly susceptible to Candidiasis due to their developing immune systems and use of antibiotics. Favus (B) is a chronic fungal infection of the scalp caused by Trichophyton schoenleinii, typically not seen in infants. Epidermophytosis (C) refers to superficial fungal infections of the skin caused by dermatophytes, not commonly found in the oral cavity of infants. Actinomycosis (D) is a bacterial infection caused by Actinomyces species, not a fungal infection.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Vibrio cholerae. This bacterium is the likely causative agent because it is known to cause severe diarrhea, and it is characterized by its motile, comma-shaped Gram-negative rods. Vibrio cholerae produces cholera toxin, leading to profuse watery diarrhea. Shigella dysenteriae causes dysentery with bloody diarrhea, Salmonella typhi causes typhoid fever, and Escherichia coli can cause various types of diarrhea but typically does not have a comma shape.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer A (Lamblia): 1. Pyriform protozoa with twin nuclei, four pairs of flagella, and a suctorial disc match the characteristics of Giardia lamblia. 2. The presence of two supporting filaments between the nuclei is a unique feature of Giardia lamblia. 3. Giardia lamblia is known to infect the duodenum and cause symptoms such as diarrhea and abdominal pain. Summary of Incorrect Choices: B: Toxoplasma - Toxoplasma gondii is not characterized by four pairs of flagella or supporting filaments in the nuclei. C: Leishmania - Leishmania species do not typically have the described morphology or location in the duodenum. D: Intestinal trichomonad - Intestinal trichomonads do not exhibit the specific features mentioned in the question, such as twin nuclei and supporting filaments.