ATI RN
microbiology an evolving science test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Anti-influenza drugs that target the neuraminidase are;
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Relenza and Tamiflu. Both Relenza and Tamiflu are anti-influenza drugs that target the neuraminidase enzyme of the influenza virus, thereby inhibiting its replication and spread. Maxi Grip (A) is not an anti-influenza drug, Theraflu (B) contains different active ingredients, and Amantadine and Rimantadine (C) target a different viral protein, M2 ion channel. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not specifically target neuraminidase for influenza treatment.
Question 2 of 9
In which of the following cases of immune reactions a large lattice is formed?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because in immune reactions, a large lattice is formed when antigens and antibodies are in optimal proportion. This optimal ratio allows for the formation of a strong antigen-antibody complex, leading to the aggregation of immune complexes into large lattice structures. When antibodies are in excess (choice A), there may not be enough antigens to form a stable lattice. Similarly, when antigens are in excess (choice C), there may be insufficient antibodies to form a strong lattice. Choice D is incorrect because the optimal proportion of antigens and antibodies is crucial for the formation of large lattices in immune reactions.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the following is not considered to be a vehicle transmission?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Insect. A vehicle transmission refers to the mode by which a disease spreads from one host to another. Insects can transmit diseases, making them a vehicle for transmission. Airborne, foodborne, and bodily fluid transmissions are well-known modes of disease spread, while insects are also known vectors for diseases like malaria and Zika.
Question 4 of 9
While examining a blood smear taken form a patient and stained by Romanovsky's method a doctor revealed some protozoa and diagnozed the patient with Chagas disease. What protozoan is the causative agent of this disease?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Chagas disease is caused by Trypanosoma cruzi. 2. Trypanosoma cruzi is transmitted by triatomine bugs. 3. On a blood smear stained with Romanovsky's method, Trypanosoma cruzi appears as trypomastigotes. 4. Toxoplasma gondii causes toxoplasmosis, not Chagas disease. 5. Leishmania donovani and Leishmania tropica cause different forms of leishmaniasis, not Chagas disease.
Question 5 of 9
Which of the following media is the most selective for Vibrio cholerae?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: TCBS. Thiosulfate-citrate-bile salts-sucrose (TCBS) agar is the most selective for Vibrio cholerae due to its high salt content, bile salts, and sucrose. Vibrio cholerae can grow well in alkaline conditions, which are provided by TCBS agar. MacConkey's agar (A) is selective for gram-negative bacteria, but not specifically for Vibrio cholerae. Chocolate agar (B) is a non-selective medium suitable for fastidious organisms. SS agar (C) is selective for Salmonella and Shigella species, not Vibrio cholerae.
Question 6 of 9
The relations between the macroorganism and the resident skin microflora are defined as:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Commensalism. In this relationship, the skin microflora benefits from the host without causing harm or benefitting it. This is evident in the mutualistic interaction where the microflora receive nutrients and a place to live, while the host remains unaffected. Choice B, Infection, is incorrect because it implies harm to the host. Choice C, Parasitism, is also incorrect as it involves one organism benefiting at the expense of the other. Choice D, No correct answer, is not applicable here as Commensalism accurately describes the relationship between the macroorganism and skin microflora.
Question 7 of 9
Bacteria that require low oxygen concentrations for growth are called:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Microaerophiles. These bacteria grow best in environments with low oxygen levels. They require oxygen for respiration but at lower concentrations than what is present in the atmosphere. This allows them to thrive in conditions where oxygen is limited but not completely absent. A: Facultative anaerobes can grow in both the presence and absence of oxygen. B: Obligate aerobes require oxygen for growth. D: Obligate anaerobes cannot survive in the presence of oxygen and typically grow in anaerobic environments. In summary, microaerophiles are the correct choice as they specifically thrive in low oxygen environments, distinguishing them from the other options.
Question 8 of 9
What is the role of bacterial endospores?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Protection against harsh conditions. Bacterial endospores are dormant structures produced by certain bacteria as a survival strategy under unfavorable conditions. They protect the bacterial DNA and other essential components from damage caused by heat, chemicals, desiccation, and radiation. Endospores do not directly participate in energy production (A), DNA replication (B), or protein synthesis (D). These functions are carried out by the active, vegetative form of the bacterial cell.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the following is true about plasmids?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Plasmids often carry antibiotic resistance genes, making choice C correct. Plasmids are circular DNA structures, not linear (A). They are found in both gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria, not exclusively in gram-positive bacteria (B). Plasmids are separate from the bacterial chromosome, not part of it (D). Therefore, choice C is the correct answer.