ATI RN
Central Nervous System Stimulants and Related Drugs NCLEX Style Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
Anti-epileptic, chemically derived from the tricyclic antidepressant is
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In this question, the correct answer is A) Carbamazepine. Carbamazepine is an anti-epileptic drug that is chemically derived from the tricyclic antidepressant class of medications. It is commonly used to treat seizures, bipolar disorder, and certain types of nerve pain. This connection between carbamazepine and tricyclic antidepressants is important to remember when studying these medications. Option B) Ethosuximide is incorrect because it is not derived from tricyclic antidepressants. Ethosuximide is primarily used to treat absence seizures. Option C) Phenytoin is also incorrect in this context as it does not belong to the tricyclic antidepressant class. Phenytoin is a commonly used anti-epileptic drug that works by stabilizing the neuronal membranes. Understanding the relationships between different classes of drugs is essential for healthcare professionals, especially when it comes to prescribing medications and understanding their mechanisms of action. This knowledge is crucial for providing safe and effective patient care, particularly in the management of conditions like epilepsy where the choice of medication can significantly impact patient outcomes.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following drugs is not effective in acute congestive glaucoma?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In this question, the correct answer is C) Timolol. Timolol is a beta-blocker that is primarily used to lower intraocular pressure in chronic open-angle glaucoma, not in acute congestive glaucoma. Acetazolamide (A) is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor that can be effective in reducing intraocular pressure in acute congestive glaucoma by decreasing aqueous humor production. Pilocarpine (B) is a cholinergic agonist that can help constrict the pupil and pull the iris away from the trabecular meshwork, aiding in the drainage of aqueous humor in acute glaucoma. Mannitol (D) is an osmotic diuretic that can reduce intraocular pressure by drawing fluid out of the eye tissues. Educationally, understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs used in the treatment of glaucoma is crucial for nursing practice. Recognizing the specific indications for each drug and their effectiveness in different types of glaucoma is essential for providing safe and effective care to patients with eye conditions. This knowledge helps nurses make informed decisions about drug administration and monitor for desired therapeutic effects or potential adverse reactions.
Question 3 of 5
Schizophrenia has following clinical features
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In schizophrenia, a complex and chronic mental health disorder, patients often display a range of clinical features that impact their thoughts, emotions, and behaviors. The correct answer, option D (All of the above), is the most appropriate choice because delusions, hallucinations, and thought disorders are all common symptoms seen in individuals with schizophrenia. Delusions are false beliefs that are not based in reality, such as believing that one is being persecuted or that they have exceptional abilities. Hallucinations involve perceiving things that are not actually present, such as hearing voices or seeing things that others do not. Thought disorders refer to difficulties with organizing thoughts and expressing them clearly, leading to disorganized speech patterns. Options A, B, and C are incorrect choices because each of these symptoms is individually associated with schizophrenia. By selecting option D, the test-taker demonstrates an understanding of the comprehensive nature of schizophrenia symptoms. From an educational standpoint, it is important for healthcare professionals, especially those preparing for the NCLEX exam, to be able to recognize the hallmark signs of schizophrenia. Understanding these clinical features is crucial for accurate diagnosis, treatment planning, and patient care. By grasping the interconnectedness of delusions, hallucinations, and thought disorders in schizophrenia, nurses and other healthcare providers can provide holistic and effective care for individuals living with this challenging condition.
Question 4 of 5
Which of the following opioid analgesics has very low protein binding?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In this question, the correct answer is A) Morphine, which has very low protein binding. Protein binding refers to the extent to which a drug binds to proteins in the blood. Morphine has a protein binding of around 35%, which is considered low compared to other opioids. Meperidine, option B, has a protein binding of around 70-80%, making it a poor choice for the answer. Propoxyphene, option C, and Codeine, option D, also have higher protein binding percentages compared to Morphine, making them incorrect choices for this question. Educationally, understanding the protein binding of drugs is crucial as it influences their distribution, metabolism, and elimination in the body. For healthcare professionals, knowing the protein binding characteristics of opioids is essential for dosing, predicting drug-drug interactions, and understanding potential side effects related to drug displacement from protein-binding sites. This knowledge is particularly important in clinical settings where precise drug administration is critical for patient safety and optimal outcomes.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following tricyclic antidepressant drugs has the least anticholinergic effect and sedation?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this question, the correct answer is D) Desipramine. Desipramine is a tricyclic antidepressant that is known to have the least anticholinergic effects and sedation among the options provided. Desipramine is a secondary amine tricyclic antidepressant that has a lower affinity for muscarinic receptors compared to other tricyclic antidepressants like Amitriptyline, Clomipramine, and Amoxapine. This lower affinity results in decreased anticholinergic side effects such as dry mouth, constipation, blurred vision, and cognitive impairment. Amitriptyline (Option A) is known for its strong anticholinergic effects and sedation, making it less favorable in patients who are sensitive to these side effects. Clomipramine (Option B) and Amoxapine (Option C) also have significant anticholinergic effects and sedation compared to Desipramine. From an educational standpoint, understanding the differences in side effect profiles of tricyclic antidepressants is crucial for nurses and healthcare professionals when selecting the most appropriate medication for patients with depression. Desipramine's lower anticholinergic effects make it a preferred choice in patients who are prone to these adverse reactions, highlighting the importance of individualized treatment plans based on patient characteristics and medication profiles.