ATI RN
Cardiovascular Drugs NCLEX Practice Questions Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
Ant has just turned 18, is in his first year at uni, and has been taking advantage of the cheap alcohol available at the uni bar. As a result of this he has missed several classes, the deadlines on 5 assignments, and may fail some of his units. Which of the following DSM-IV diagnoses is most correct for him?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Substance Abuse. Ant's behavior of missing classes, deadlines, and risking academic failure due to alcohol use aligns with the criteria for Substance Abuse in the DSM-IV. This diagnosis indicates a pattern of harmful use despite negative consequences. Substance Dependence (Choice B) would require more severe criteria like tolerance and withdrawal symptoms, which are not evident here. Choice C is incorrect as Substance Dependence is not met. Choice D is incorrect as it dismisses the seriousness of Ant's behavior and the potential impact on his academic success.
Question 2 of 5
A patient demonstrates disoriented thinking and irrational ideas. A nurse can anticipate that a PET scan would most likely show dysfunction in the brain’s:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: frontal lobe. Disoriented thinking and irrational ideas are associated with dysfunction in the frontal lobe, responsible for decision-making, problem-solving, and emotional regulation. A PET scan would likely show decreased activity in this region. The parietal lobe (B) is primarily involved in sensory processing, the occipital lobe (C) in visual processing, and the temporal lobe (D) in memory and language functions, not directly linked to disoriented thinking.
Question 3 of 5
A patient has been taking temazepam (Restoril) for intermittent insomnia. She calls the nurse to say that when she takes it, she sleeps well, but the next day she feels 'so tired.' Which explanation by the nurse is correct?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: “These drugs affect the sleep cycle, resulting in daytime sleepiness.” Temazepam is a benzodiazepine used for insomnia by enhancing the effects of GABA neurotransmitter, which can disrupt the sleep cycle. This disruption can lead to next-day drowsiness. Choice A is incorrect as long-term use does not increase sedative effects. Choice B is incorrect as taking the drug regularly may not reduce the hangover effect. Choice D is incorrect as benzodiazepines like temazepam actually have a sedative effect and do not increase CNS activity.
Question 4 of 5
A patient has been diagnosed with angina and will be given a prescription for sublingual nitroglycerin tablets. When teaching the patient how to use sublingual nitroglycerin, the nurse will include which instruction?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: If the chest pain is not relieved after one tablet, call 911 immediately. This instruction is crucial because persistent chest pain could indicate a more serious cardiac event requiring immediate medical attention. It is important to emphasize the urgency of seeking medical help if the first dose does not provide relief. Choice A is incorrect because taking up to five doses at short intervals is not recommended and could lead to hypotension. Choice B is incorrect because chewing the tablet would bypass the sublingual route of administration, reducing the effectiveness of the medication. Choice D is incorrect because waiting 1 minute between doses is not recommended as the patient should seek emergency medical attention if the first dose does not provide relief.
Question 5 of 5
A patient tells the nurse that he likes to eat large amounts of garlic “to help lower his cholesterol levels naturally.” The nurse reviews his medication history and notes that which drug has a potential interaction with the garlic?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: warfarin (Coumadin). Garlic can increase the risk of bleeding when taken with warfarin due to its anticoagulant properties. Garlic can enhance the effects of warfarin, leading to potentially dangerous bleeding episodes. Acetaminophen (A), digoxin (C), and phenytoin (D) do not have documented interactions with garlic that would pose a significant risk compared to warfarin. Therefore, choice B is the correct answer based on the potential for a clinically significant drug interaction.