ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Annie states,'I 'm afraid to 1et my children out of my sight now that I can't hear them." What is the nurse ' s BEST response?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: A is the correct answer as it demonstrates therapeutic communication by encouraging Annie to express her feelings and fears. It shows empathy and understanding, allowing Annie to elaborate on her concerns. B is incorrect as it dismisses Annie's fears and implies blame on her parenting. C is incorrect as it focuses on the behavior of the children rather than addressing Annie's emotions. D is incorrect as it places the responsibility on the children to make Annie feel comfortable, rather than addressing her concerns directly.
Question 2 of 9
A patient presents with fever, chills, headache, and myalgia after returning from a trip to sub-Saharan Africa. Laboratory tests reveal intraerythrocytic ring forms and trophozoites on blood smear examination. Which of the following is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Plasmodium falciparum. Plasmodium falciparum is the most likely causative agent because the patient's symptoms of fever, chills, headache, and myalgia, along with the presence of intraerythrocytic ring forms and trophozoites on blood smear, are characteristic of malaria, particularly caused by P. falciparum in sub-Saharan Africa. Summary of other choices: B: Trypanosoma cruzi causes Chagas disease, which presents with symptoms like fever, rash, and swelling at the site of entry, not consistent with the patient's presentation. C: Borrelia burgdorferi causes Lyme disease, which typically presents with a characteristic rash (erythema migrans) and arthritis, not matching the patient's symptoms. D: Leishmania donovani causes visceral leishmaniasis, which presents with symptoms like weight loss, hepatosplen
Question 3 of 9
A patient presents with severe headache, photophobia, and neck stiffness. On examination, there is nuchal rigidity and positive Kernig and Brudzinski signs. Which of the following neurological conditions is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Meningitis. The patient's symptoms of severe headache, photophobia, neck stiffness, nuchal rigidity, and positive Kernig and Brudzinski signs are classic signs of meningitis. Meningitis is an inflammation of the meninges surrounding the brain and spinal cord, leading to these specific neurological symptoms. Migraine headache (A) typically presents with a throbbing headache, nausea, and sensitivity to light and sound, but does not typically cause neck stiffness or positive meningeal signs. Cluster headache (B) is characterized by severe unilateral headache with autonomic symptoms like tearing or nasal congestion, but does not typically cause neck stiffness or positive meningeal signs. Subarachnoid hemorrhage (D) presents with sudden severe headache often described as "the worst headache of my life," and may cause neck stiffness, but typically does not present with photophobia or positive meningeal signs like Kernig and Brudzinski signs.
Question 4 of 9
To achieve organized work flow in the unit the staff must be aware of the head nurse's role. What is the PRIMARY purpose of supervision and delegation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Enhances the delivery of quality nursing care. Supervision and delegation are essential in ensuring efficient and effective healthcare delivery. By supervising and delegating tasks appropriately, the head nurse can ensure that staff members are performing their duties competently, which ultimately leads to improved quality of patient care. Supervision helps in monitoring staff performance, providing feedback, and offering guidance when needed. Delegation ensures that tasks are allocated to the right staff members based on their skills and abilities, optimizing the workflow. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the primary purpose of supervision and delegation, which is to enhance the quality of nursing care through effective oversight and task allocation.
Question 5 of 9
Which of the following conditions is characterized by inflammation of the glomeruli in the kidneys, leading to hematuria, proteinuria, and hypertension?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Acute glomerulonephritis. Glomerulonephritis is characterized by inflammation of the glomeruli in the kidneys, leading to symptoms like hematuria (blood in urine), proteinuria (excess protein in urine), and hypertension (high blood pressure). Acute tubular necrosis (A) involves damage to the renal tubules, not the glomeruli. Chronic kidney disease (C) refers to long-term kidney damage and may not always present with the classic symptoms mentioned. Nephrotic syndrome (D) involves excessive protein loss in urine but may not always involve inflammation of the glomeruli.
Question 6 of 9
Nurse Victor reviews the medical history of patient Mila. Which of the following conditions is the MOST common cause of cardiogenic shock?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Acute myocardial infarction (MI) is the most common cause of cardiogenic shock. During an MI, there is significant damage to the heart muscle, leading to a decrease in cardiac output and subsequent shock. This results in inadequate tissue perfusion and oxygen delivery. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because decreased hemoglobin level (A) may lead to anemia but is not the most common cause of cardiogenic shock. Hypotension (C) is a symptom of shock, not the cause. Coronary artery disease (D) is a risk factor for MI but not the direct cause of cardiogenic shock.
Question 7 of 9
A patient undergoing mechanical ventilation in the ICU develops acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). What intervention should the healthcare team prioritize to manage the patient's exacerbation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Initiate non-invasive positive pressure ventilation (NIPPV). This intervention is prioritized as it helps improve oxygenation and ventilation in COPD exacerbation without the need for invasive mechanical ventilation, reducing the risk of ventilator-associated complications. NIPPV also decreases the work of breathing and can prevent the need for intubation. Administering bronchodilator medications (B) is important in COPD exacerbation but may not address the immediate need for ventilatory support. Endotracheal intubation (C) should be reserved for cases of respiratory failure not responding to NIPPV. Chest physiotherapy (D) may be beneficial in some cases but is not the first-line intervention for managing acute COPD exacerbation.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse is working in a clinic that is designed to provide health education and immunization. As such, the clinic aims to provide_______________
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Primary prevention. In this scenario, the clinic focuses on preventing disease before it occurs through health education and immunization. Primary prevention aims to promote general health and prevent the onset of diseases. It targets the entire population to reduce the risk of disease occurrence. Incorrect Choices: A: Diagnosis and treatment - This choice involves identifying and treating existing health conditions, which is not the primary focus of a clinic designed for health education and immunization. B: Secondary prevention - This choice involves early detection and treatment of diseases to prevent complications, which is more focused on individuals who already have risk factors or symptoms, not on the general population. D: Tertiary prevention - This choice involves managing and treating complications of diseases to prevent further deterioration, which is not the primary goal of a clinic focused on health education and immunization.
Question 9 of 9
The PRIORITY nursing objective when caring a patient with a tracheostomy is _________.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: To provide a patent airway. When caring for a patient with a tracheostomy, ensuring a clear and unobstructed airway is the top priority to maintain adequate oxygenation and ventilation. This involves suctioning, maintaining proper tube placement, and monitoring for any signs of respiratory distress. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not address the immediate need for airway management, which is crucial for the patient's safety and well-being.