Animals that are capable of transmitting infectious disease are called:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: vectors. Vectors are animals that transmit infectious diseases from one host to another, typically through biting or contact. They do not cause the disease themselves but serve as intermediaries. Pathogens (B) are the microorganisms that cause diseases. Carriers (C) are individuals who harbor a pathogen without showing symptoms. Parasites (D) are organisms that live on or inside another organism and may or may not transmit diseases. Therefore, the term "vectors" specifically refers to animals that transmit infectious diseases, making it the correct choice in this context.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Metronidazole. Parodontosis is a condition caused by bacterial infection, not protozoal infection. Metronidazole is an effective antibiotic commonly used to treat bacterial infections in the oral cavity, including those associated with parodontosis. Levamisole is an anthelmintic drug used to treat parasitic worm infections, not suitable for parodontosis. Griseofulvin is an antifungal medication used for fungal infections, not indicated for parodontosis. Mykoseptin is not a recognized drug and is likely a distractor. Therefore, based on the bacterial nature of parodontosis, Metronidazole is the appropriate choice.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: A: Incorrect - The complement system is not directly involved in the viral neutralization reaction. B: Correct - Specific antibodies neutralize viruses by blocking their ability to infect cells. C: Incorrect - Antibodies are titrated, but only one serum sample is required for neutralization testing. D: Incorrect - Viral neutralization is primarily used to measure antibody response, not to identify newly isolated viruses.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Streptococcus pyogenes. This is because Streptococcus pyogenes is a Gram-positive cocci in chains bacterium that is catalase-negative, making it the most likely causative agent in this scenario. Streptococcus pyogenes is a common pathogen causing bacterial endocarditis. Summary of other choices: B: Staphylococcus aureus is a Gram-positive cocci bacterium but is catalase-positive, so it is unlikely in this case. C: Enterococcus faecalis is a Gram-positive cocci bacterium, but it is catalase-negative, which is not consistent with the given information. D: Micrococcus luteus is a Gram-positive cocci bacterium but is catalase-positive, making it an unlikely causative agent.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Thin, pale pink microorganisms with spiral coils suggest Treponema pallidum, the causative agent of syphilis. 2. Staining with Romanovsky-Giemsa method highlights the characteristic morphology of T. pallidum. 3. Syphilis presents with various stages and symptoms, correlating with the lymph node involvement. 4. Leptospirosis is caused by Leptospira interrogans, presenting with different clinical features. 5. Relapsing fever is caused by Borrelia species, which do not match the description. 6. Trypanosomiasis is caused by Trypanosoma species, which have distinct morphology and staining properties.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct method of laboratory diagnostics for suspected malaria is blood examination. Malaria is diagnosed by detecting the presence of the Plasmodium parasite in the patient's blood. This can be done through microscopy to identify the parasite in a blood smear or through rapid diagnostic tests (RDTs) that detect specific antigens produced by the parasite. Blood examination allows for the direct visualization of the parasite, making it the most accurate method for diagnosing malaria. Immunological tests, stool examination, and urine examination are not suitable for diagnosing malaria as the parasite primarily resides in the red blood cells. Stool and urine examinations are more commonly used for diagnosing gastrointestinal or urinary tract infections, respectively.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: phialospores. Phialospores are conidiospores that bud off from a vase-shaped spore-bearing cell called a phialide. This structure is characteristic of fungi in the genus Penicillium. Arthrospores (A) are formed by the fragmentation of hyphae, porospores (B) are not a recognized term in mycology, and blastospores (D) are produced by budding from yeast cells. Therefore, C is the correct choice based on the specific description provided in the question.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Binding of mast cell-fixed IgE. The Bezredka method involves introducing small amounts of the antigen to which the individual is allergic, leading to the binding of mast cell-fixed IgE. This process desensitizes the immune system and prevents anaphylactic shock by reducing the release of histamine and other mediators from mast cells. Rationale: 1. A: Stimulation of antigen-specific IgG2 is incorrect because the Bezredka method primarily targets IgE, not IgG2. 2. B: Stimulation of the immunological antigen tolerance is incorrect as this method aims to block the allergic response rather than induce tolerance. 3. D: Blocking of mast cell mediators synthesis is incorrect because the Bezredka method does not directly inhibit the synthesis of mast cell mediators, but rather blocks their release by binding IgE.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Acyclovir is the correct answer because it is an antiviral drug used to treat herpes simplex and varicella-zoster viruses, not influenza. Tamiflu, Amantadine, and Relenza are used to treat influenza by inhibiting viral replication or easing symptoms. Acyclovir's mechanism of action targets different viruses, making it ineffective for treating influenza.