ATI RN
Intro to Pharmacology ATI Questions
Question 1 of 5
Androgen is secreted by
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Androgens, mainly testosterone, are secreted by the testes' Leydig cells, activated by pituitary LH, making the testes the source. FSH regulates sperm, not androgens. GnRH from the hypothalamus triggers LH/FSH release, indirectly affecting androgens. The pituitary releases LH/FSH, not androgens. The testes' direct secretion role is fundamental, driven by LH, distinguishing it from regulatory hormones.
Question 2 of 5
Which area of the brain is primarily responsible for maintaining sleep and wakefulness?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The reticular activating system (RAS) in the brainstem regulates sleep-wake cycles, promoting alertness or rest, per neurophysiology. The cortex processes thought, not cycles. The limbic system drives emotion, not sleep directly. The cerebellum coordinates movement. RAS's role is central, controlling consciousness states.
Question 3 of 5
Intravenous atropine at low doses is commonly used by oral surgeons during surgical procedures to remove impacted wisdom teeth. The rationale behind the use of this agent in this situation likely involves which of the following beneficial effects?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Atropine, a muscarinic antagonist, is used in oral surgery to manage parasympathetic effects. Option , gastrointestinal relaxation, is a minor effect but not the primary goal in wisdom tooth extraction. Option , drying oral mucous membranes, is correct-by inhibiting salivary glands, atropine reduces secretions, keeping the surgical field clear, a key benefit in oral procedures. Option , inducing tachycardia, occurs but isn't the intent; low doses minimize this. Option , pupillary dilation, happens but is irrelevant to oral surgery. Option (E), reducing urinary motility, is incidental. The drying effect directly aids visibility and cleanliness during surgery, aligning with clinical practice. At low doses, atropine selectively targets salivary inhibition over systemic effects, making it practical and effective. This rationale reflects its established use in anesthesia to optimize surgical conditions without unnecessary cardiovascular or ocular complications.
Question 4 of 5
A 52-year-old man with asthma treated with a β2 agonist via inhaler has been having difficulty with therapy because of persistent changes in blood pressure, nausea, vomiting, and hypomagnesemia. Which of the following medications would be best for this patient?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: β2-agonist side effects (BP changes, nausea, hypomagnesemia) suggest overuse. Ipratropium , an anticholinergic bronchodilator, avoids these. Options , , persist with β2-agonists, risking side effects. Epinephrine (E) worsens them. Ipratropium's different mechanism improves asthma control safely.
Question 5 of 5
A 36-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after being involved in a one-car motor vehicle accident where his car struck a telephone pole. He is a known chronic alcoholic. He smells alcohol on his breath, and his blood alcohol level is 300 mg/dL. Which of the following treatments should be given to him if he goes into alcohol withdrawal?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Alcohol withdrawal in a chronic alcoholic (300 mg/dL) requires lorazepam . This benzodiazepine mimics alcohol's GABA enhancement, preventing seizures and agitation. Buspirone treats anxiety, not withdrawal. Pentobarbital is excessive. Phenytoin targets seizures alone. Saline (E) supports but doesn't treat. Lorazepam's safety is key.