Andrea's mother has been becoming more and more forgetful. It seems to have gotten worse over the past 15 years. Her most likely diagnosis could be:

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Psychobiologic Disorders Med Surg 2 Questions

Question 1 of 5

Andrea's mother has been becoming more and more forgetful. It seems to have gotten worse over the past 15 years. Her most likely diagnosis could be:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B) Alzheimer's Disease. Alzheimer's Disease is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder characterized by cognitive decline, memory loss, confusion, and behavioral changes. In the case of Andrea's mother, the gradual onset and worsening of forgetfulness over 15 years are indicative of a chronic, degenerative condition like Alzheimer's. Option A) Depression is unlikely to be the correct diagnosis in this case because although depression can affect memory and cognitive function, the gradual decline over 15 years is more characteristic of a neurodegenerative disorder like Alzheimer's. Option C) Hyperthyroidism is also an unlikely diagnosis as it typically presents with symptoms such as weight loss, tremors, and heat intolerance, rather than primarily cognitive decline and memory loss. Option D) Delirium is characterized by acute changes in cognition and attention, often due to an underlying medical condition or medication, and does not align with the chronic, progressive nature of Andrea's mother's symptoms. In an educational context, understanding the differences between these conditions is crucial for healthcare professionals to accurately assess and diagnose patients presenting with cognitive changes. Recognizing the distinct clinical features of each condition is essential for providing appropriate care and interventions tailored to the specific needs of the patient.

Question 2 of 5

Your 42-year-old patient in the alcohol treatment unit tells you he often can't remember events while he was drinking. What is this most likely an example of?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B) Blackouts. When a person experiences blackouts while drinking, it means they have gaps in their memory and cannot recall events or activities that occurred during the time they were under the influence of alcohol. This is due to the disruptive effects of alcohol on the brain's ability to form new memories. It is a common phenomenon among individuals who consume large amounts of alcohol in a short period of time. Option A) Denial is incorrect because denial refers to a defense mechanism where a person refuses to acknowledge or accept a reality or truth. It is not related to memory loss caused by alcohol consumption. Option C) Psychosis is also incorrect in this context, as psychosis involves a loss of touch with reality, including symptoms like hallucinations and delusions, which are not typically associated with alcohol-induced memory blackouts. Option D) Depression is not the correct answer either, as depression is a mood disorder characterized by persistent feelings of sadness and hopelessness, and it is not directly related to memory impairment caused by alcohol. Educationally, understanding the phenomenon of blackouts caused by alcohol consumption is crucial for healthcare providers working with patients who have substance use disorders. It highlights the importance of educating patients about the risks associated with excessive alcohol consumption and the potential consequences on memory and overall health. It also underscores the significance of assessing patients for alcohol-related memory deficits and providing appropriate interventions and support.

Question 3 of 5

Your patient tells you her husband has a serious drinking problem. Which statement tells you she may be in a codependent relationship?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, option B is indicative of a codependent relationship because the wife is enabling her husband's drinking by covering up for him at work. Codependency is a dysfunctional relationship where one person enables another's addiction, poor mental health, or irresponsible behavior. By calling his job and lying for him, the wife is perpetuating his drinking problem and preventing him from facing consequences, thus reinforcing his behavior. Option A does not necessarily indicate codependency as setting personal boundaries and recognizing one's limit is a healthy response to dealing with a loved one's addiction. Option C shows empathy towards the children's feelings, but it does not directly enable the husband's behavior. Option D, stating that the husband is drinking less, does not signify codependency either. Educationally, understanding codependency is crucial for nurses as they often encounter patients with psychobiologic disorders and their families. By recognizing signs of codependency, nurses can provide appropriate support and interventions to help both the patient and their loved ones break free from enabling behaviors and foster healthier relationships.

Question 4 of 5

Regarding Folsteins Mini Mental State examination which is incorrect?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Rationale: The correct answer is D) orientation makes up 10% of the marks. Explanation: In the Folstein Mini Mental State Examination (MMSE), orientation comprises 10% of the total score, not 20% as stated in option D. The MMSE is used to assess cognitive function, not just to determine if an illness is organic or psychiatric in origin. Scoring is out of 30 points, not 20 as mentioned in option A. A score of 20 or less does indicate cognitive impairment, as stated in option C. Educational Context: Understanding the components and scoring of the MMSE is crucial for healthcare professionals, especially those working with patients with psychobiologic disorders. Orientation is just one aspect of the MMSE, alongside other cognitive domains like memory, attention, and language. Knowing the correct scoring breakdown helps clinicians accurately interpret and communicate the results of the assessment, leading to appropriate interventions and care planning for patients with cognitive impairments.

Question 5 of 5

With regard to chemical restraint which is false?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In the context of psychobiologic disorders and the use of chemical restraints, it is crucial to understand the principles and best practices involved in managing agitated or aggressive patients. Option A, "the end point of rapid tranquilization is sedation," is false because the ultimate goal of rapid tranquilization is not just sedation but to quickly and safely de-escalate the patient's agitation and aggression to prevent harm to themselves or others. Sedation is a means to achieve this end but not the ultimate goal. Option B, "diazepam should not be given i.m.," is incorrect because diazepam can be administered intramuscularly in emergency situations to quickly calm an agitated patient. However, intravenous administration is preferred for faster onset of action. Option C, "a patient should be offered oral sedation first," is misleading as in acute situations where rapid tranquilization is necessary to ensure safety, oral sedation may not be a feasible option due to delayed onset of action. Intramuscular or intravenous routes are more appropriate for immediate effect. Option D, "the antipsychotic agents should not be used in seizure-prone patients," is incorrect as antipsychotic medications can be used in seizure-prone patients with caution and monitoring. However, certain antipsychotics may lower the seizure threshold and should be used judiciously. Educationally, understanding the nuances of chemical restraint in psychobiologic disorders is essential for nurses and healthcare providers working in acute care settings. Proper training on when and how to use different medications for rapid tranquilization, including considerations for routes of administration and patient-specific factors such as seizure risk, can help ensure safe and effective management of agitated patients while minimizing risks and promoting patient well-being.

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