and tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-α) during the acute phase response?

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Question 1 of 9

and tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-α) during the acute phase response?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Macrophages are the primary cells responsible for producing tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-α) during the acute phase response. TNF-α is a pro-inflammatory cytokine that plays a critical role in initiating and propagating the inflammatory response. Macrophages secrete TNF-α in response to infection, injury, or other inflammatory stimuli, contributing to the recruitment of immune cells and the activation of additional inflammatory pathways. In the context of the acute phase response, macrophages are key mediators of the immune response and play a crucial role in host defense mechanisms.

Question 2 of 9

A postpartum client who is breastfeeding expresses concerns about breast engorgement and discomfort. What nursing intervention should be prioritized to alleviate symptoms?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The most appropriate nursing intervention to alleviate breast engorgement and discomfort in a breastfeeding client is to encourage frequent breastfeeding or pumping sessions. Engorgement occurs when the breasts become overly full of milk, causing them to become swollen, firm, and painful. By ensuring that the baby breastfeeds frequently, the client can effectively empty the breasts, which helps to relieve engorgement and discomfort. Encouraging the client to breastfeed on demand and ensuring proper latching can help prevent further engorgement issues. Pumping can also be useful if the baby is unable to feed directly from the breast or to relieve engorgement between feedings. This intervention addresses the root cause of the problem and promotes the client's comfort and breastfeeding success. Applying cold packs, using a supportive bra or breast binder, and administering oral analgesics may provide some relief for discomfort but do not address the underlying issue of engorgement.

Question 3 of 9

During the active phase of labor, the nurse observes that the cervix is dilated to 6 cm and the contractions are regular, lasting 60 seconds each, occurring every 3 minutes. What action should the nurse take?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: During the active phase of labor, a cervical dilation of 6 cm and regular contractions lasting 60 seconds each, occurring every 3 minutes indicate good progress in labor. The nurse should continue to monitor the progress closely by assessing the mother's vital signs, fetal heart rate, and the pattern of contractions. It is important to provide support and encouragement to the mother, continue with comfort measures, and be prepared to assist with the delivery when the cervix is fully dilated. This stage of labor is focused on active dilation and effacement of the cervix, and it is not yet time for the mother to push or for the nurse to administer oxytocin to augment labor.

Question 4 of 9

The physician ordered sonography. The nurse informs the ultrasound unit in charge and prepares the patient for the procedure. The patient asks the importance of the procedure, the nurse CORRECT response is________.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Sonography, also known as ultrasound, is a non-invasive imaging technique that uses high-frequency sound waves to create images of structures inside the body. In the context of a patient who is pregnant, sonography is commonly used to assess the well-being of the fetus. It allows healthcare providers to monitor the growth and development of the fetus, evaluate the placenta, amniotic fluid levels, and detect any abnormalities that may be present.

Question 5 of 9

Which of the following interventions is most appropriate for a patient with a tension pneumothorax?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: A tension pneumothorax is a life-threatening condition where air accumulates in the pleural space and cannot escape, causing increased pressure in the chest cavity. This can lead to compression of the lung and major blood vessels, leading to inadequate oxygenation and circulation.

Question 6 of 9

One of the patients is manifesting signs and symptoms of alcohol withdrawal such as: tremors, diaphoresis, and hyperactivity. Blood pressure is 190/92 mm.Hg and pulse rate of 92 beats/min. Which of the following medications should you expect to be ordered for these patients?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The patient is exhibiting signs and symptoms of alcohol withdrawal, such as tremors, diaphoresis, hyperactivity, elevated blood pressure, and tachycardia. Lorazepam, which is a benzodiazepine, is commonly used to manage alcohol withdrawal symptoms. It helps alleviate symptoms such as anxiety, agitation, tremors, and seizures by acting on the same brain receptors affected by alcohol. It has sedative, anxiolytic, and anticonvulsant properties which can help stabilize the patient and prevent potential complications of alcohol withdrawal, such as seizures. Haloperidol is an antipsychotic medication used for conditions like schizophrenia and acute psychosis; therefore, it would not be appropriate for alcohol withdrawal. Naloxone is used to reverse opioid overdose, and Benztropin is used to treat Parkinson's disease and extrapyramidal symptoms, so they are not indicated for alcohol

Question 7 of 9

In order for Nurse Cris to facilitate the recognition of the community the existence of their health problems, which nursing action would yield BETTER results?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Allowing people's participation to confirm the health problems would yield better results in facilitating the recognition of the community's health issues. By involving the community members themselves in the process of identifying and acknowledging their health problems, there is a higher likelihood of garnering accurate and relevant information. This participatory approach fosters a sense of ownership and empowerment among the community members, making them more likely to actively engage in addressing the identified health concerns. Additionally, community participation can help build trust between the nurse and the residents, leading to more effective communication and collaboration in improving overall health outcomes.

Question 8 of 9

A patient presents with central obesity, moon face, buffalo hump, and purple striae. Laboratory tests reveal elevated cortisol levels. Which endocrine disorder is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The patient's presentation of central obesity, moon face, buffalo hump, purple striae, and elevated cortisol levels strongly suggest Cushing's syndrome. Cushing's syndrome is a disorder characterized by excessive levels of cortisol, either due to an endogenous (e.g., adrenal tumor) or exogenous (e.g., prolonged steroid use) source. The classic physical features of Cushing's syndrome include central obesity with thin extremities (truncal obesity), moon face (rounding and reddening of the face), buffalo hump (accumulation of fat between the shoulders), and purple striae (stretch marks that are wide and purple in color). In the context of the elevated cortisol levels, these clinical signs are highly indicative of Cushing's syndrome. Hyperthyroidism, hypothyroidism, and diabetes mellitus would not typically present with the specific combination of symptoms described.

Question 9 of 9

A patient presents with recurrent episodes of joint pain, swelling, and limited range of motion in multiple joints. Laboratory tests reveal elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), positive rheumatoid factor (RF), and presence of anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (anti-CCP) antibodies. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause these findings?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The combination of recurrent joint pain, swelling, and limited range of motion in multiple joints along with elevated ESR, positive RF, and presence of anti-CCP antibodies is classic for rheumatoid arthritis (RA). Elevated ESR indicates inflammation, positive rheumatoid factor (RF) is an autoantibody commonly found in the serum of patients with RA, and the presence of anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (anti-CCP) antibodies further supports the diagnosis of RA. These laboratory findings along with the clinical presentation are highly suggestive of rheumatoid arthritis. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), ankylosing spondylitis (AS), and psoriatic arthritis (PsA) can have overlapping symptoms with RA, but the specific combination of elevated ESR, positive RF, and anti-CCP antibodies points more towards RA in this scenario.

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