ATI RN
46 Free Patient Care Technician Practice Test Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
An unresponsive adult trauma patient exhibits pale, cold, and clammy skin that appears ashen/cyanotic. He is breathing less than eight times a minute, has a heart rate of 32 beats a minute, and shows an irregular bradyarrhythmia on the monitor in lead II. He is experiencing frank hypotension that is barely palpable. Which of the following stages of shock is most likely causing his presentation?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Uncompensated shock. This patient is exhibiting severe signs of shock, including hypotension, bradycardia, altered skin characteristics, and inadequate breathing. Uncompensated shock occurs when the body's compensatory mechanisms are overwhelmed, leading to a rapid decline in perfusion and organ function. In this case, the patient's vital signs indicate a critical state where the body is unable to maintain adequate tissue perfusion. Other choices are incorrect because irreversible shock occurs when vital organs have sustained significant damage, reversible shock indicates early recognition and intervention, and compensated shock denotes the body's ability to maintain perfusion despite initial insult.
Question 2 of 5
A trauma patient presents to your emergency department with inspiratory stridor and a suspected C-spine injury. Oxygen saturation is 88% on high-flow oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. The most appropriate next step is to:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Maintain inline immobilization and establish a definitive airway. In a trauma patient with inspiratory stridor and a suspected C-spine injury, maintaining inline immobilization is crucial to prevent worsening of the spinal injury. Establishing a definitive airway is necessary to secure the patient's airway and improve oxygenation. Immediate tracheostomy (choice B) is too invasive and carries risks. Applying cervical traction (choice A) can worsen the C-spine injury. Inserting bilateral thoracostomy tubes (choice C) is not indicated for a patient with stridor and a C-spine injury.
Question 3 of 5
A 36-year-old woman is beaten about the head and face and is brought to the local community hospital in full spinal immobilization. Her BP is 130/88, HR 70/min, and RR 18/min. Pulse oximetry indicated 98% while she was given 100% O2 via a non-rebreather mask. Her airway is clear. She has marked swellings on her face and several lacerations of her scalp that are not actively bleeding. She does not respond to verbal stimuli, but localizes to painful stimuli and opens her eyes. She moves all extremities equally. The remainder of her physical exam is normal. There is no neurosurgeon at the local hospital. After ensuring the patient's airway, the most appropriate course of action is to:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Transfer the patient to a neurosurgeon without performing a CT-scan. Rationale: 1. The patient has sustained significant head trauma with neurological symptoms. 2. The patient is not responding to verbal stimuli but localizes to painful stimuli, indicating altered mental status. 3. There is no neurosurgeon at the local hospital, suggesting the need for transfer to a facility with neurosurgical capabilities. 4. Performing a CT-scan may delay necessary intervention, and in this case, immediate neurosurgical evaluation is crucial. Summary: A: Admitting the patient for observation is not appropriate as she requires specialized care. B: Obtaining x-ray of facial bones is not a priority in this scenario and does not address the potential neurological injury. C: While a complete x-ray evaluation of the cervical spine is important, neurosurgical evaluation takes precedence in this case to assess for possible intracranial injuries.
Question 4 of 5
A 17-year-old female falls from 2 meters and is unresponsive. The first step in treatment is:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Applying oxygen and maintaining airway is the first step in treatment for an unresponsive patient to ensure proper oxygenation and ventilation. This step is crucial in preventing hypoxia, which can lead to further complications. Administering vasopressors (choice A) is not necessary initially as the priority is airway management. Establishing IV access for drug-assisted intubation (choice B) is premature without ensuring adequate oxygenation first. Seeking the cause of decreased level of consciousness (choice C) can be done after ensuring airway patency and oxygenation.
Question 5 of 5
A 25 year old male is brought to the hospital after sustaining partial and full thickness burns involving 60% of his body surface are His right arm and hand are severely burne There are obvious full thickness burns of the entire right hand and a circumferential burn of the right arm. Pulses are absent at the right wrist and are not detected by doppler examination. The first step in management of the right upper extremity should be:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: "Escharotomy." In this scenario, the patient has a circumferential burn on the right arm with absent pulses at the wrist, indicating compartment syndrome. Escharotomy involves making incisions through the eschar (burned tissue) to relieve pressure and restore circulation. This is the initial step to prevent tissue damage and potential limb loss. Choice A, "Fasciotomy," is a more invasive procedure that involves cutting through the fascia to relieve pressure. It is typically done if escharotomy is ineffective. Choice B, "Angiography," is used to visualize blood vessels and is not the initial management for compartment syndrome in burns. Choice D, "Heparinization," is not indicated in this situation as the primary concern is restoring circulation and preventing further tissue damage.