ATI RN
46 Free Patient Care Technician Practice Test Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
An unresponsive adult trauma patient exhibits pale, cold, and clammy skin that appears ashen/cyanotic. He is breathing less than eight times a minute, has a heart rate of 32 beats a minute, and shows an irregular bradyarrhythmia on the monitor in lead II. He is experiencing frank hypotension that is barely palpable. Which of the following stages of shock is most likely causing his presentation?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Uncompensated shock. In this scenario, the patient is presenting with severe signs of shock, including hypotension, bradycardia, bradyarrhythmia, and inadequate breathing. Uncompensated shock occurs when the body's compensatory mechanisms are overwhelmed, leading to decreased tissue perfusion and oxygen delivery. The patient's pale, cold, clammy skin and cyanosis indicate poor perfusion. The low heart rate and irregular rhythm suggest the heart is struggling to maintain cardiac output. The inadequate respiratory rate further impairs oxygenation. These findings collectively indicate that the patient is in a state of decompensation, unable to adequately compensate for the decreased perfusion. Irreversible shock (A) would involve complete organ failure and a fatal outcome. Reversible shock (C) implies that interventions could restore normal perfusion, which is not the case here. Compensated shock (D) would involve more effective compensatory mechanisms to maintain perf
Question 2 of 5
A trauma patient presents to your emergency department with inspiratory stridor and a suspected C-spine injury. Oxygen saturation is 88% on high-flow oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. The most appropriate next step is to:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Maintaining inline immobilization and establishing a definitive airway is crucial in this scenario to secure the patient's airway given the presence of inspiratory stridor and potential C-spine injury. Performing a tracheostomy (B) or inserting thoracostomy tubes (C) are not indicated as the primary concern is airway management. Applying cervical traction (A) can exacerbate the C-spine injury and is not the priority over securing the airway to ensure oxygenation.
Question 3 of 5
A 36-year-old woman is beaten about the head and face and is brought to the local community hospital in full spinal immobilization. Her BP is 130/88, HR 70/min, and RR 18/min. Pulse oximetry indicated 98% while she was given 100% O2 via a non-rebreather mask. Her airway is clear. She has marked swellings on her face and several lacerations of her scalp that are not actively bleeding. She does not respond to verbal stimuli, but localizes to painful stimuli and opens her eyes. She moves all extremities equally. The remainder of her physical exam is normal. There is no neurosurgeon at the local hospital. After ensuring the patient's airway, the most appropriate course of action is to:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Transfer the patient to a neurosurgeon without performing a CT-scan. Rationale: 1. Patient presents with head trauma and neurological symptoms. 2. CT-scan is the gold standard for assessing head injuries. 3. In this case, the patient needs prompt neurosurgical evaluation. 4. Delaying transfer for a CT-scan can worsen the patient's condition. 5. Immediate neurosurgical intervention may be required for intracranial injuries. 6. This decision prioritizes the patient's urgent need for specialized care over diagnostic imaging. Summary: - Choice A: Admitting for observation delays specialist care. - Choice B: X-ray of facial bones is unnecessary for neurological assessment. - Choice C: Complete cervical spine x-ray is not the priority in this scenario.
Question 4 of 5
A 17-year-old female falls from 2 meters and is unresponsive. The first step in treatment is:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because in a trauma scenario, ensuring airway patency and oxygenation is the priority to prevent hypoxia, especially in an unresponsive patient. Administering vasopressors (A) is not the initial step as the focus should be on airway management first. Establishing IV access for drug-assisted intubation (B) is important but not the first step. Seeking the cause of decreased level of consciousness (C) can be done after securing the airway and providing oxygen. Thus, applying oxygen and maintaining the airway (D) is the most critical initial intervention.
Question 5 of 5
A 25 year old male is brought to the hospital after sustaining partial and full thickness burns involving 60% of his body surface are His right arm and hand are severely burne There are obvious full thickness burns of the entire right hand and a circumferential burn of the right arm. Pulses are absent at the right wrist and are not detected by doppler examination. The first step in management of the right upper extremity should be:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: "Escharotomy." An escharotomy is a surgical procedure done to release constriction caused by eschar (burned tissue) in order to restore circulation and prevent ischemia. In this case, the patient has circumferential burns on the right arm leading to absent pulses, indicating compromised blood flow. Performing an escharotomy will relieve the pressure, restore blood flow, and prevent further tissue damage and potential limb loss. Choice A: "Fasciotomy" is incorrect as fasciotomy is usually performed in cases of compartment syndrome, which is a different condition from constriction due to burns. Choice B: "Angiography" is incorrect as it is a diagnostic procedure to visualize blood vessels, not a treatment for constriction caused by burns. Choice D: "Heparinization" is incorrect as heparinization is a treatment for blood clotting disorders and not indicated in this scenario of compromised blood flow due to burns.