ATI RN
Nursing Process Final Exam Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
An unconscious patient is brought to the emergency department. Which of the following assessments should be implemented first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: The client’s airway should be assessed first. This is because airway management is the top priority in any emergency situation to ensure the patient can breathe. Without a patent airway, the patient's oxygenation and ventilation will be compromised, leading to serious complications or death. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because assessing the airway takes precedence over determining the reason for admission, reviewing medications, or assessing past medical history in an unconscious patient. These other assessments are important but not as critical as securing the airway to maintain the patient's breathing and oxygenation.
Question 2 of 9
At a public health fair, a nurse discusses the dangers of sun exposure. Prolonged sun exposure has been blamed for which form of cancer?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, "All of the above." Malignant melanoma, basal cell epithelioma, and squamous cell carcinoma are all types of skin cancer associated with prolonged sun exposure. Melanoma is the most dangerous form, while basal cell and squamous cell carcinomas are more common but less aggressive. Sun exposure can lead to DNA damage in skin cells, increasing the risk of developing these types of cancers. Therefore, all three choices are correct as they are all linked to sun exposure. The other choices are incorrect because each type of skin cancer mentioned can be caused by prolonged sun exposure, so selecting any one of them individually would not fully capture the scope of the risks associated with sun exposure.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse is developing a plan of care for marrow suppression, the major dose-limiting adverse reaction to floxuridine (FUDR). How long after drug administration does bone marrow suppression become noticeable?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 7 to 14 days. Marrow suppression from floxuridine typically occurs 1-2 weeks after administration due to its effects on rapidly dividing cells in the bone marrow. This is known as the nadir period. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because 24 hours is too soon for noticeable effects, 2 to 4 days is too short for the nadir period, and 21 to 28 days is too long for the onset of marrow suppression. The correct choice aligns with the expected timeframe for floxuridine's impact on bone marrow function.
Question 4 of 9
In addition to antibiotics, which of the ff. recommendations can the nurse make to increase comfort in a patient experiencing sinusitis? Choose all answers that are correct. i. Coughing and deep breathing iv. Room humidifier ii. Sinus irrigation v. Percussion and postural drainage iii. Hot moist packs vi. Semi-fowler’s position
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 2, 4, 5, and 6. 1. Room humidifier (choice 2) helps to keep the air moist, which can ease sinus pressure and discomfort. 2. Hot moist packs (choice 4) can provide relief by reducing congestion and promoting sinus drainage. 3. Percussion and postural drainage (choice 5) can help loosen mucus and improve drainage. 4. Semi-fowler's position (choice 6) can also aid in drainage and reduce sinus pressure. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not include all the recommended interventions that can help increase comfort in a patient with sinusitis. Each of the incorrect choices is missing at least one crucial recommendation that is beneficial for managing sinusitis symptoms.
Question 5 of 9
Mr. Reyes is extremely confused. The nurse provide new information slowly and in small amounts because;
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. When someone is extremely confused, providing new information slowly and in small amounts can help prevent overwhelming stress and further confusion. This approach allows the individual to process information more effectively and reduces the risk of escalating confusion or delirium as a defense mechanism. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because destruction of brain cells, teaching progression, and giving minimal information are not directly related to managing confusion in this scenario.
Question 6 of 9
JR is admitted to the medical-surgical unit because of a diagnosis of nephritic syndrome. What is the hallmark of this syndrome?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The hallmark of nephritic syndrome is edema due to proteinuria leading to hypoalbuminemia. Protein loss in urine causes decreased colloid osmotic pressure, leading to fluid leaking into tissues, causing edema. Osmotic diuresis (A) is unrelated to nephritic syndrome. Hypolipidemia (B) and hyperproteinemia (D) are not characteristic of nephritic syndrome.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the following would the nurse identify as an abnormal finding?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The nurse would identify platelets at 115,000/ul as an abnormal finding because it is below the normal range of 150,000-450,000/ul. Low platelet count can lead to increased bleeding risk. RBC count and hematocrit levels are within normal ranges, making them normal findings. Option D is incorrect as platelets are abnormal.
Question 8 of 9
The ABCD method offers one way to assess skin lesions for possible skin cancer. What does the A stand for?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Asymmetry. In the ABCD method for assessing skin lesions, A stands for asymmetry, which refers to whether one half of the lesion looks different from the other half. This is important because asymmetrical lesions are more likely to be cancerous. Actinic (choice A) refers to sun damage, Arcus (choice C) refers to a condition affecting the eyes, and Assessment (choice D) is a general term that does not specifically relate to the characteristics of skin lesions.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the ff is an important nursing intervention for HIV positive clients?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: Providing referral to support groups and resources for information is essential for HIV positive clients as it offers emotional support, education, and access to resources for managing the condition. Step 2: Support groups provide a safe space for clients to share experiences, seek advice, and reduce feelings of isolation. Step 3: Resources for information help clients stay informed about their condition, treatment options, and lifestyle modifications. Step 4: Referral to support groups and resources promotes holistic care and enhances the client's overall well-being. Summary: Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not address the specific needs of HIV positive clients and may even pose risks to their health. Option D is the most appropriate intervention as it focuses on comprehensive support and empowerment for clients.