ATI RN
Advanced Pharmacology Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
An overwhelmed nursing student asks the instructor whether there are any tips that will make learning pharmacology easier. The instructor gives an example of the anticoagulant heparin. The instructor indicates that knowing heparin and comparing other drugs to it will facilitate learning the many anticoagulants. Which approach is the instructor using?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The prototype approach uses a representative drug like heparin to learn a class (anticoagulants), comparing others to its traits-mechanism, effects, side effects-simplifying study. Mechanism of action is narrower. Generic or trade names focus on nomenclature, not learning strategy. Prototype leverages a familiar example, a proven method for mastering drug groups.
Question 2 of 9
A patient has been taking digoxin at home but took an accidental overdose and has developed toxicity. The patient has been admitted to the telemetry unit, where the physician has ordered
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct response is to inform the patient that the medication, likely an antiarrhythmic agent such as digoxin immune fab (Digibind), helps to convert the irregular heart rhythm caused by digoxin toxicity to a more normal rhythm. This explanation provides a clear understanding of why the medication is being administered in cases of digoxin toxicity. It is important for the nurse to educate the patient about the purpose of the medication and how it will help manage the symptoms of digoxin toxicity.
Question 3 of 9
A 48-year-old woman pricks her finger on a rose bush while pruning. A few days later, she develops small, red lesions near the wound and a red track ascending her hand toward her trunk. Her doctor prescribes itraconazole for the sporotrichosis. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Sporotrichosis, from Sporothrix schenckii, requires antifungals like itraconazole. Option , inhibiting lanosterol to ergosterol conversion, is correct-itraconazole blocks 14-α-demethylase, disrupting fungal membrane synthesis. Option , pore formation, is amphotericin B's mechanism. Option , microtubule disruption, is griseofulvin's. Option , squalene monooxygenase inhibition, is terbinafine's. Option (E), 5-FU conversion, is flucytosine's. Itraconazole's ergosterol inhibition effectively treats this subcutaneous infection, targeting fungal viability.
Question 4 of 9
An adolescent client will receive Depo-Provera as a method of birth control. She asks the nurse how long the drug will be effective. What is the best response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Depo-Provera, a progestin injection, provides contraception by inhibiting ovulation for 3 months , requiring re-administration every 12 weeks. This duration is based on its pharmacokinetic profile, ensuring reliable hormone levels. Two months underestimates, risking unprotected gaps. Six months or 1 year overestimate, reducing efficacy mid-cycle. The nurse's accurate response (D) educates the client on timing, ensuring adherence and preventing unintended pregnancy, aligning with clinical standards for injectable contraceptives.
Question 5 of 9
A patient asks how to apply transdermal nitroglycerin. What is the nurse™s best response?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Transdermal nitroglycerin patches should be applied to clean, dry, hairless areas of the body to ensure proper absorption of the medication. Hair can interfere with the absorption of the medication through the skin. Commonly recommended areas for application include the chest, upper arm, or abdomen. It is important to rotate application sites to prevent skin irritation and to follow the specific instructions provided by the healthcare provider or pharmacist.
Question 6 of 9
A 59-year-old man with a history of depression cuts his wrists in a suicide attempt. He is brought to the local emergency department for care. He has bilateral medial 3-cm lacerations through the skin and subcutaneous tissues that will require sutures. A review of his prior medical history indicates an allergy to 2% lidocaine. The most likely explanation for this is which of the following?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 7 of 9
Enteric coated acetylsalicylic acid has been prescribed for a patient to treat chronic arthritis. The patient calls the clinic nurse because of gagging and difficulty swallowing the tablets. What response would the nurse give to the patient?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Enteric-coated tablets should not be crushed or opened, as this disrupts their protective coating and can cause gastric irritation. The patient should be instructed to swallow the tablets whole with plenty of water or milk. Crushing (A) or opening the tablets (C) is inappropriate. Notifying the healthcare provider (B) may be necessary if the patient cannot tolerate the medication.
Question 8 of 9
What is a side effect of Heparin?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Heparin is an anticoagulant medication that works by preventing the formation of blood clots. One of the main side effects of heparin therapy is an increased risk of bleeding. Since heparin inhibits the body's ability to clot blood, it can lead to easy bruising, nosebleeds, gastrointestinal bleeding, or bleeding at the injection site. Patients on heparin therapy must be closely monitored for signs of bleeding, and their dosage may need to be adjusted to minimize this risk.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the following 'overdoses' is most commonly associated with respiratory alkalosis, but when more severe a metabolic acidosis?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Overdose toxicities differ in acid-base effects. Methanol causes metabolic acidosis via formic acid, not respiratory alkalosis. Lead poisoning leads to anemia or neurologic issues, rarely acid-base shifts. Paracetamol overdose induces lactic acidosis from liver failure, not respiratory changes initially. Salicylate (e.g., aspirin) overdose stimulates the respiratory center early, causing hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis (low pCO2), but severe cases add metabolic acidosis (high anion gap) from uncoupled oxidative phosphorylation and lactic acid buildup. Codeine, an opioid, depresses respiration, causing acidosis, not alkalosis. Salicylate's dual pattern is distinctive, requiring urgent recognition—initial alkalosis shifts to acidosis as toxicity worsens, guiding bicarbonate or dialysis treatment.