ATI RN
Nurse in Psychiatry Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
An outcome for a patient experiencing anticipatory grieving for a spouse diagnosed with terminal cancer would be that the patient will:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because anticipatory grieving involves emotional involvement with the dying spouse. This allows the patient to process emotions, express love, and make meaningful connections before the actual loss. Choice B is incorrect as it suggests avoidance of pain through mental mechanisms, which is not conducive to healthy grieving. Choice C is incorrect as it focuses on a specific behavior (violence) rather than the emotional process of grieving. Choice D is incorrect as it assumes the patient's agreement to care for the spouse is the primary outcome, overlooking the emotional aspect of anticipatory grief.
Question 2 of 9
Which intervention will the nurse implement in the first half hour after the patient has received ECT?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because reorienting the patient to time, place, and person is crucial in the immediate post-ECT period to help the patient regain orientation as consciousness improves. This intervention helps prevent confusion and disorientation commonly experienced after ECT. A: Continually stimulating the patient may be overwhelming and unnecessary. B: Continuing bagging is not relevant after ECT as the patient's respiratory function should have stabilized. D: Encouraging walking and eating can be unsafe immediately post-ECT due to potential disorientation and muscle weakness.
Question 3 of 9
When making a distinction as to whether an elderly patient has confusion related to delirium or another problem, what information would be of particular value?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Medications the patient has recently taken. This is crucial because certain medications can cause delirium in elderly patients. Step 1: Evaluate recent medication history. Step 2: Identify medications known to cause delirium. Step 3: Determine if the patient has taken any of these medications. Other choices are incorrect because: A: Evidence of spasticity or flaccidity is more related to neuromuscular conditions. C: Level of preoccupation with somatic symptoms is not specific to delirium assessment. D: The patient’s level of motor activity is not a key factor in distinguishing delirium from other problems.
Question 4 of 9
A nurse administers pure oxygen to a client during and after electroconvulsive therapy. What is the nurse’s rationale for this procedure?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: To prevent anoxia due to medication-induced paralysis of respiratory muscles. During electroconvulsive therapy, muscle relaxants are often used to prevent injury during the seizure. These medications can lead to paralysis of respiratory muscles, causing potential anoxia if oxygen is not administered. Providing pure oxygen ensures adequate oxygenation despite muscle paralysis. Incorrect Choices: A: Preventing increased intracranial pressure is not the primary rationale for administering oxygen during ECT. C: Hypotension, bradycardia, and bradypnea are potential side effects of ECT itself, but oxygen administration is not primarily to prevent these. D: Oxygen is not administered to prevent a blocked airway but rather to ensure adequate oxygenation during muscle paralysis.
Question 5 of 9
To plan care for a patient with a psychiatric disorder, the nurse keeps in mind that the primary nursing role related to therapeutic activities is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assisting the patient in accomplishing the activity. This is because the primary nursing role related to therapeutic activities is to support and facilitate the patient in engaging in the activity independently. By assisting the patient, the nurse promotes autonomy and empowerment, which are essential for therapeutic outcomes. Summary: - B: Ensuring that the patient will comply with the rules of the activity is incorrect as it focuses on compliance rather than empowering the patient. - C: Ensuring that the patient can accomplish the activity in a timely manner is incorrect as the focus should be on the patient's ability to engage in the activity, not just the speed. - D: Directing and controlling the activities to minimize patient anxiety and confusion is incorrect as it doesn't promote the patient's independence and may reinforce dependency.
Question 6 of 9
The common element seen in every type of bereavement is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because it captures the essence of bereavement - the experience of loss. This choice acknowledges that bereavement involves losing something significant, which is a universal aspect of grieving. Other choices are incorrect - A is not always predictable, C is not always acute depression, and D focuses on a specific aspect of grief rather than the core element of loss. Therefore, B is the most comprehensive and inclusive choice.
Question 7 of 9
Planning for a patient with Asperger's disorder will be facilitated if the nurse understands that this disorder is different from autism. The nurse will base care on knowledge that Asperger's disorder is characterized by:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Age-appropriate language development. Asperger's disorder is characterized by normal to above-average language development, whereas autism typically presents with delays or impairments in language skills. This is important for planning care as it influences communication strategies and interventions for individuals with Asperger's. A: Repetitive patterns of behavior are more indicative of autism, not specific to Asperger's. C: Stereotypic movements and speech patterns are also more associated with autism and not a defining feature of Asperger's. D: Obsession with objects that move in a spinning motion is a specific behavior that may be seen in some individuals with autism, but it is not a defining characteristic of Asperger's disorder.
Question 8 of 9
Which developmental level would be characterized by a child being able to focus, coordinate, and imagine a series of events? .
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Concrete operational. At this developmental level, children typically exhibit the ability to focus, coordinate, and imagine a series of events. This stage, according to Piaget's theory, usually occurs around ages 7 to 11. Children at this stage can perform logical operations, understand conservation, and think more systematically. A: Preoperational - Children at this stage (ages 2-7) lack the ability to perform logical operations and struggle with understanding conservation and cause-and-effect relationships. C: Formal operational - This stage (typically starting around age 11) involves abstract thinking, hypothetical reasoning, and problem-solving beyond the concrete level. D: Postoperational - This term is not a recognized developmental stage in Piaget's theory.
Question 9 of 9
A teen states, "I miss my dog so much, but if I start crying, I will never stop." This reflects a fear of:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the teen is expressing a fear of losing control over her emotions if she starts crying. This is evident from her belief that she will never stop crying once she starts. Option B (Losing the support of her friends and family) is incorrect as the statement does not suggest concern about losing support. Option C (Embarrassing herself by crying in public) is incorrect as the fear expressed is more about not being able to stop crying rather than embarrassment. Option D (Appearing emotionally immature) is incorrect as there is no indication that the teen is worried about how others perceive her emotional maturity.