ATI RN
Oncology Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
An oncology patient will begin a course of chemotherapy and radiation therapy for the treatment of bone metastases. What is one means by which malignant disease processes transfer cells from one place to another?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Invading healthy host tissues. Invasion is the process where malignant cells grow into surrounding healthy tissues, allowing the cancer to spread to other parts of the body. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Adhering to primary tumor cells does not involve the transfer of cells to other locations, inducing mutation of cells of another organ is not a mechanism of cell transfer, and phagocytizing healthy cells refers to the process of engulfing and digesting cells, which is not a method of cancer cell transfer.
Question 2 of 5
A client who is at risk for disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) has a serum fibrinogen level of 110 mg/dL. The nurse should take which of the following actions first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A serum fibrinogen level of 110 mg/dL indicates a low level, which puts the client at risk for bleeding in DIC. The priority action for the nurse is to notify the health care provider. Rechecking the fibrinogen level may delay necessary interventions, administering cryoprecipitate should be done based on the provider's prescription, and while monitoring is important, immediate notification of the provider is crucial to address the low fibrinogen level promptly.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is admitting an oncology patient to the unit prior to surgery. The nurse reads in the electronic health record that the patient has just finished radiation therapy. With knowledge of the consequent health risks, the nurse should prioritize assessments related to what health problem?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Impaired wound healing. Patients who have undergone radiation therapy are at risk for impaired wound healing due to tissue damage. While cognitive deficits, cardiac tamponade, and tumor lysis syndrome can be concerns for oncology patients, the immediate priority following radiation therapy is assessing for impaired wound healing to prevent complications post-surgery.
Question 4 of 5
Following an extensive diagnostic workup, an older adult patient has been diagnosed with a secondary myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS). What assessment question most directly addresses the potential etiology of this patient's health problem?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Secondary MDS can occur at any age and results from prior toxic exposure to chemicals, including chemotherapeutic medications. Asking about exposure to toxic chemicals in previous jobs directly addresses the potential etiology of this patient's health problem. Choices B, C, and D are not as directly related to the etiology of secondary MDS. Recurrent infections (Choice B) are not a known cause of MDS. Family history (Choice C) is more pertinent to primary MDS, which has a genetic component, while sun exposure (Choice D) is not associated with the etiology of MDS.
Question 5 of 5
A client with a history of prostate cancer is in the clinic and reports new onset of severe low back pain. What action by the nurse is most important?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct action by the nurse is to assess the client's gait and balance. Severe low back pain in a client with a history of prostate cancer may indicate spinal cord compression, a serious complication. Assessing gait and balance can help determine if there is any spinal cord involvement, which requires immediate medical attention. Asking about changes in urinary symptoms (choice B) is important to assess for possible urinary obstruction, but assessing gait and balance takes precedence due to the risk of spinal cord compression. Documenting the report thoroughly (choice C) is essential but not the most immediate action needed. Inquiring about recent activities (choice D) is not as critical as assessing for spinal cord involvement.
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