ATI RN
foundations of nursing practice questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
An oncology nurse is contributing to the care of a patient who has failed to respond appreciably to conventional cancer treatments. As a result, the care team is considering the possible use of biologic response modifiers (BRFs). The nurse should know that these achieve a therapeutic effect by what means?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Focusing the patient's immune system exclusively on the tumor. Biologic response modifiers (BRMs) work by enhancing the body's natural defenses to target and attack cancer cells specifically. This approach helps the immune system to recognize and destroy cancer cells while minimizing harm to normal cells. A: Promoting the synthesis and release of leukocytes - This is not the primary mechanism of action for BRMs. While leukocytes play a role in the immune response, BRMs target the immune system's response to tumors. C: Potentiating the effects of chemotherapeutic agents and radiation therapy - While some BRMs may be used in combination with these treatments, their primary mode of action is not to enhance the effects of chemotherapy or radiation therapy. D: Altering the immunologic relationship between the tumor and the patient - This choice is too broad and vague. BRMs specifically aim to direct the immune response towards targeting the tumor cells, rather than altering the overall immunologic relationship
Question 2 of 9
A public health nurse is preparing an educational campaign to address a recent local increase in the incidence of HIV infection. The nurse should prioritize which of the following interventions?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Educational programs that focus on control and prevention. This intervention is the most crucial as it directly addresses the issue of the increasing incidence of HIV infection. By providing education on how to control and prevent the spread of HIV, the nurse can empower the community to take proactive measures to reduce transmission rates. A: Lifestyle actions that improve immune function may be helpful in general health promotion but do not directly target the prevention of HIV transmission. C: Appropriate use of standard precautions is important but is more focused on healthcare settings rather than community-wide prevention efforts. D: Screening programs for youth and young adults are valuable but may not be as effective as educational programs in preventing the spread of HIV.
Question 3 of 9
A patient is experiencing oliguria. Which actionshould the nurse performfirst?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assess for bladder distention. Oliguria indicates decreased urine output, which could be due to urinary retention. Assessing for bladder distention helps identify the underlying cause. Requesting diuretics (B) without assessing first is premature. Increasing IV fluid rate (C) may worsen the situation if there is urinary retention. Encouraging caffeinated beverages (D) is not appropriate as they can worsen dehydration.
Question 4 of 9
Which factor is most importaNnt iRn diIminGishiBng. mCateMrnal, fetal, and neonatal complications in a U S N T O pregnant patient with diabetes?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Degree of glycemic control before and during the pregnancy. Proper glycemic control is crucial in managing complications in a pregnant patient with diabetes. Uncontrolled blood sugar levels can lead to maternal, fetal, and neonatal complications. Monitoring and maintaining stable blood glucose levels before and during pregnancy help reduce the risk of adverse outcomes. A: Evaluation of retinopathy by an ophthalmologist - Although important for overall health, retinopathy does not directly impact maternal, fetal, and neonatal complications in diabetes during pregnancy. B: The patient’s stable emotional and psychological status - While emotional and psychological well-being are important, they do not directly affect complications related to diabetes in pregnancy. D: Total protein excretion and creatinine clearance within normal limits - While these are indicators of kidney function, they are not the most crucial factors in managing complications in a pregnant patient with diabetes.
Question 5 of 9
A patient is beginning an antiretroviral drug regimen shortly after being diagnosed with HIV. What nursing action is most likely to increase the likelihood of successful therapy?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Addressing possible barriers to adherence. This is crucial because adherence to the antiretroviral drug regimen is key for successful therapy in HIV patients. By identifying and addressing barriers such as medication side effects, cost, or forgetfulness, nurses can help patients stay on track with their treatment. Other choices are incorrect: A: Promoting complementary therapies is not the priority in initiating antiretroviral therapy. Adherence to the prescribed regimen is more critical. C: Educating about the pathophysiology of HIV is important, but it may not directly impact the success of the therapy as much as addressing adherence barriers. D: While follow-up blood work is necessary, it is not as immediate and impactful as addressing adherence barriers at the beginning of therapy.
Question 6 of 9
A patient was tested for HIV using enzyme immunoassay (EIA) and results were positive. The nurse should expect the primary care provider to order what test to confirm the EIA test results?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Western blot test. The Western blot test is considered the gold standard for confirming HIV diagnosis after a positive EIA result. It detects specific antibodies to HIV proteins, providing a more accurate confirmation. Other choices are incorrect because: A: Another EIA test would yield the same result as the initial EIA test. B: Viral load test measures the amount of virus in the blood and is not used to confirm HIV diagnosis. D: CD4/CD8 ratio is used to monitor immune status but not to confirm HIV diagnosis.
Question 7 of 9
A public health nurse has formed an interdisciplinary team that is developing an educational program entitled Cancer: The Risks and What You Can Do About Them. Participants will receive information, but the major focus will be screening for relevant cancers. This program is an example of what type of health promotion activity?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Secondary prevention. This program focuses on screening for relevant cancers, which is a key component of secondary prevention aimed at early detection and treatment to reduce the impact of the disease. Secondary prevention aims to identify and treat health conditions in their early stages. Disease prophylaxis (A) focuses on preventing the occurrence of a disease, while risk reduction (B) aims to lower the chances of developing a disease. Tertiary prevention (D) involves managing and improving outcomes for individuals already diagnosed with a disease. In this scenario, the emphasis on screening aligns closely with the goals of secondary prevention, making it the most appropriate choice.
Question 8 of 9
A nurse is teaching a health class about the nutritional requirements throughout the life span. Which information should the nurse include in the teaching session? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because infants typically triple their birth weight by 1 year of age due to rapid growth and development. This information is crucial for understanding normal growth patterns in infants. Choice B is incorrect as picky eating behavior is common in toddlers but not a universal characteristic. Choice C is incorrect as school-age children can consume hot dogs and grapes safely as long as they are cut into appropriate sizes to prevent choking hazards. Choice D is incorrect as breastfeeding women actually need an additional 450-500 kcal/day, not 750 kcal/day.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse is planning the care of a patient who has a diagnosis of atopic dermatitis, which commonly affects both of her hands and forearms. What risk nursing diagnosis should the nurse include in the patients care plan?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Risk for Self-Care Deficit Related to Skin Lesions. Patients with atopic dermatitis may experience difficulty performing self-care tasks due to pain, itching, and limitations in hand mobility caused by skin lesions. This diagnosis addresses the potential challenges the patient may face in maintaining personal hygiene and managing their skin condition. Explanation for why other choices are incorrect: A: Risk for Disturbed Body Image Related to Skin Lesions - While atopic dermatitis may impact body image, the priority in this case is the patient's ability to perform self-care. B: Risk for Disuse Syndrome Related to Dermatitis - Disuse syndrome is not typically associated with atopic dermatitis. C: Risk for Ineffective Role Performance Related to Dermatitis - This diagnosis focuses on the patient's ability to fulfill their roles, which may not be directly impacted by atopic dermatitis.