ATI RN
foundations of nursing practice questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
An oncology nurse is contributing to the care of a patient who has failed to respond appreciably to conventional cancer treatments. As a result, the care team is considering the possible use of biologic response modifiers (BRFs). The nurse should know that these achieve a therapeutic effect by what means?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Focusing the patient's immune system exclusively on the tumor. Biologic response modifiers (BRMs) work by enhancing the body's natural defenses to target and attack cancer cells specifically. This approach helps the immune system to recognize and destroy cancer cells while minimizing harm to normal cells. A: Promoting the synthesis and release of leukocytes - This is not the primary mechanism of action for BRMs. While leukocytes play a role in the immune response, BRMs target the immune system's response to tumors. C: Potentiating the effects of chemotherapeutic agents and radiation therapy - While some BRMs may be used in combination with these treatments, their primary mode of action is not to enhance the effects of chemotherapy or radiation therapy. D: Altering the immunologic relationship between the tumor and the patient - This choice is too broad and vague. BRMs specifically aim to direct the immune response towards targeting the tumor cells, rather than altering the overall immunologic relationship
Question 2 of 9
A public health nurse is participating in a campaign aimed at preventing cervical cancer. What strategies should the nurse include is this campaign? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Promotion of HPV immunization. This strategy is effective in preventing cervical cancer by targeting the main cause, which is Human Papillomavirus (HPV). The HPV vaccine can protect against the most common types of HPV that cause cervical cancer. Encouraging young women to delay first intercourse (B) does not directly prevent HPV transmission, as the virus can be transmitted through other means. Smoking cessation (C) is important for overall health but does not specifically prevent cervical cancer. Vitamin D and calcium supplementation (D) may have general health benefits but do not directly prevent cervical cancer. Using safer sex practices (E) can reduce the risk of HPV transmission but does not provide the same level of protection as HPV immunization.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse is assessing the health care disparitiesamong population groups. Which area is the nurse monitoring?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Accessibility of health care services. The nurse is monitoring disparities in access to healthcare services among different population groups. This is important as it can influence health outcomes and the prevalence of complications. Outcomes of health conditions (B) are impacted by access to care. Prevalence of complications (C) and incidence of diseases (D) can also be influenced by disparities in accessing healthcare services. However, the primary focus of the nurse's assessment in this scenario is on the accessibility of healthcare services as a key factor contributing to health care disparities.
Question 4 of 9
A nurse believes that the nurse-patient relationshipis a partnership and that both are equal participants. Which term should the nurse use to describe this belief?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct term to describe the belief that the nurse-patient relationship is a partnership where both are equal participants is "Mutuality" (C). This term emphasizes the idea of shared responsibility, respect, and collaboration between the nurse and the patient. It signifies a relationship built on equality and mutual understanding, fostering trust and positive outcomes. Choice A (Critical thinking) involves analyzing and evaluating information, which is essential for decision-making but does not directly reflect the equality and partnership aspect of the nurse-patient relationship. Choice B (Authentic) relates to being genuine and true to oneself, which is important in building trust but does not specifically address the equal participation aspect in the relationship. Choice D (Attend) means to be present or pay attention, which is a fundamental aspect of nursing care but does not capture the full essence of a partnership based on equality and mutual involvement.
Question 5 of 9
A public health nurse is preparing an educational campaign to address a recent local increase in the incidence of HIV infection. The nurse should prioritize which of the following interventions?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Educational programs that focus on control and prevention. This intervention is the most crucial as it directly addresses the issue of the increasing incidence of HIV infection. By providing education on how to control and prevent the spread of HIV, the nurse can empower the community to take proactive measures to reduce transmission rates. A: Lifestyle actions that improve immune function may be helpful in general health promotion but do not directly target the prevention of HIV transmission. C: Appropriate use of standard precautions is important but is more focused on healthcare settings rather than community-wide prevention efforts. D: Screening programs for youth and young adults are valuable but may not be as effective as educational programs in preventing the spread of HIV.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse is admitting a 55-year-old male patient diagnosed with a retinal detachment in his left eye. While assessing this patient, what characteristic symptom would the nurse expect to find?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why A is correct: 1. Retinal detachment causes traction on the retina. 2. Traction on the retina can stimulate photoreceptors. 3. Stimulation of photoreceptors can lead to perception of flashing lights. 4. Therefore, the characteristic symptom of retinal detachment is flashing lights in the visual field. Summary: B: Sudden eye pain is not a characteristic symptom of retinal detachment. C: Loss of color vision is not typically associated with retinal detachment. D: Colored halos around lights are more indicative of conditions like glaucoma or corneal edema, not retinal detachment.
Question 7 of 9
A patient has sought care, stating that she developed hives overnight. The nurses inspection confirms the presence of urticaria. What type of allergic hypersensitivity reaction has the patient developed?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Type I hypersensitivity reaction. This type of reaction involves the release of histamine from mast cells and basophils, leading to symptoms like hives. It is characterized by the involvement of IgE antibodies. In this case, the patient developed hives quickly after exposure to the allergen, indicating an immediate hypersensitivity reaction typical of Type I. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are associated with different mechanisms and timeframes of hypersensitivity reactions. Type II involves antibody-mediated cell destruction, Type III involves immune complex deposition, and Type IV is a delayed-type hypersensitivity reaction mediated by T cells, none of which are consistent with the rapid onset of hives seen in this patient.
Question 8 of 9
As a staff member in a local hospice, a nurse deals with death and dying on a frequent basis. Where would be the safe venue for the nurse to express her feelings of frustration and grief about a patient who has recently died?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: At a memorial service. This is a safe venue for the nurse to express her feelings of frustration and grief about a patient who has recently died because a memorial service is specifically designed to honor and remember the deceased. It provides a supportive and understanding environment where emotions can be shared openly without judgment. The nurse can find comfort in sharing her feelings with others who have also been impacted by the patient's passing. Incorrect choices: A: In the cafeteria - Not an appropriate setting for expressing personal emotions related to death and dying. B: At a staff meeting - Might not be the most suitable place as the focus is on work-related matters. C: At a social gathering - Not specifically designed for processing grief and may not provide the necessary support and understanding.
Question 9 of 9
Massage around the feces and work down to remove.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct order for the massage is to start around the feces (4), then work downwards (1), followed by moving towards the sides (5), then back to the top (2), continuing to the sides again (3), and finally finishing at the top (6). This sequence ensures a thorough and effective massage process. Other choices have different orders that do not follow the logical flow of massaging around the feces and working down as specified in the question.